Timeline for Why is "שבי" switched from masculine to feminine?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 8, 2014 at 2:32 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | I dont understand your last comment, nor do I think you understand the question. | |
| Sep 7, 2014 at 23:38 | comment | added | user6591 | But you jumped to conjugate שביה. Being that we are dealing with a single lady, we have to start from שבי. | |
| Sep 7, 2014 at 22:52 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | That's what defines the gender of the possessive suffix, not the gender of the word. שבי conjugates to שביו while שביה conjugates to שביתו. So why in the first verse does it use שבי (conjugated to שביו) and then change to שביה (unconjugated)? | |
| Sep 7, 2014 at 22:48 | comment | added | user6591 | But that is what defines the gender terminology in the first passuk. Belonging to the nation which is male. | |
| Sep 7, 2014 at 22:32 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | He's not discussing the possessiveness. | |
| Sep 7, 2014 at 22:16 | history | answered | user6591 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |