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Jul 16, 2014 at 19:38 history edited msh210 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 16, 2014 at 19:38 comment added msh210 "My understanding is that the Talmud is interpreting the verse in Proverbs as referring to an individual's personal enemies; whereas Deuteronomy refers to Israel's national enemies who seek its destruction." Where does that understanding come from? The Talmud pretty clearly states that the difference is whether the enemy is Jewish.
Jul 16, 2014 at 14:35 history edited Loewian CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 15, 2014 at 19:11 history answered Loewian CC BY-SA 3.0