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Jun 1, 2014 at 3:02 comment added Shmuel @WhatHath Please see my follow-up question judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/38763/…
Jun 1, 2014 at 3:00 comment added Shmuel @wfb Why would Moshe receive an explanation which contradicts the Written Law?
Oct 18, 2013 at 15:00 comment added wfb Read the Rambam's introduction to the mishnah. Certain explanations which are not disputed such as the example in this post are called פירושים המקובלים which are received from Moshe & not subject to change.
Oct 18, 2013 at 12:57 comment added MoriDowidhYa3aqov Related: thetorah.com/can-torah-contradict-halacha Ibn 3azra is where people should be standing not the other way around
Aug 16, 2013 at 7:34 comment added Double AA @ray You can say it's unlikely if you want.
Aug 16, 2013 at 5:34 comment added ray maybe but no reason to entertain this since not one single opinion anywhere (nach, bavli, yerushalmi ,midrash,zohar ,rishonim, etc.) which holds this or even says this was held by anyone in the past. if it were held by Moshe there would have been some record of it somewhere. especially since it is a huge chidush and contradicts every opinion on the matter.
Aug 15, 2013 at 15:13 comment added WhatHathGodWrought I am NOT talking about the NUMBER of commandments, but rather about their details. The number may not have changed, but the way we understand and apply them have. Please look again at the sources I quoted in the Mishne Torah, he clearly states this.
Aug 15, 2013 at 5:38 comment added ray believe it or not I actually think it is true. this is because the mitzvot parallel the 248 limbs and 365 gidim of a man, which in turn parallel spiritual forces which go all the way up to the sefiros. so i think there's a highly precise "circuitry" to the 613 commandments that cannot change. see also: hirhurim.blogspot.co.il/2005/02/eternity-of-torah.html
Aug 15, 2013 at 3:12 comment added Double AA @ray That's a nice platitude but you know on some level it isn't true.
Aug 14, 2013 at 21:14 comment added ray dont think you're right. the torah commandments never change.
Aug 14, 2013 at 21:03 comment added WhatHathGodWrought @ray: Why not? Again, it doesn't matter how WE understand it now, or what possibilities we entertain. The Torah was given in a way that was meant to be understood in different generations in different ways. So, yes, it could be that the "original" understanding was the one you are suggesting. But it obviously wasn't ridiculous in their eyes, otherwise they wouldn't accept it!
Aug 14, 2013 at 19:32 comment added ray anything "could". but if there is not a single opinion anywhere in the talmud, mishna, yerushalmi, midrash etc. that holds of this there's no reason to entertain such a possibility.
Aug 14, 2013 at 19:03 comment added Double AA I said it could. I have no idea if it did or didn't.
Aug 14, 2013 at 18:51 comment added ray what you actually believe the oral law changed so drastically? furthermore its obviously totally ridiculous to kill a girl because the bedsheet had no blood. many explanations could exonerate her. could be mukat etz, or happened b4 kidushin, etc.
Aug 14, 2013 at 18:22 comment added Double AA But maybe chazaka of the circumstances beats that. Maybe the verses about witnesses are talking about the death penalty in only that specific instance.
Aug 14, 2013 at 18:11 comment added ray @DoubleAA cannot be how Moses understood it. that would contradict other places in the torah, such as: lo yumat al pi ed echad. all the more so without any witnesses
Aug 14, 2013 at 7:45 comment added Double AA @ray He's saying it might be that Moses understood it that way. It might not. But it doesn't matter (halachically). What matters is how we read it now.
Aug 14, 2013 at 5:21 comment added ray are you saying Moses understood that the girl would be executed merely if the sheets were not blood stained? (i.e. no witnesses that she commited adultery). dont think that's correct
Aug 14, 2013 at 1:05 history answered WhatHathGodWrought CC BY-SA 3.0