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Dec 1, 2015 at 5:05 answer added Dude timeline score: 0
Jan 8, 2015 at 19:48 answer added Meh timeline score: 3
Jun 3, 2013 at 16:32 comment added Double AA @yoel Before you go contradict an explicit gemara based on your personal whims, why not check out the gemara I quoted above (Eruvin 100b) and see that things aren't always so obvious.
Jun 3, 2013 at 16:25 comment added yoel @DoubleAA I apologize for not being consistent - I would have thought it obvious that the Torah is G-d's statement of morality. And yes, without Torah it would not be intuitive that stealing or incest are wrong - and indeed, they are not regarded as immoral in all cultures.
Jun 3, 2013 at 5:49 comment added Double AA @yoel (You just changed from God to Torah.) Are you now saying that without Torah, we wouldn't have known that stealing or incest is wrong?
Jun 2, 2013 at 21:59 comment added yoel @DoubleAA it was only the first thing that comes to mind - it seems obvious to me that Torah is the source of morality. WRT G-d wanting one to break His established morality, what is that but not G-d establishing an exception to the general standard of His morality? Wouldn't it be better to say "usually G-d says we should not do x, but in this instance He commanded the opposite - what gives?"
Jun 2, 2013 at 21:27 comment added Double AA @yoel respectively: That doesn't seem like the traditional interpretation of that Mishna (cf. Rambam, Bartenura), and in fact is contradicted by the Talmud (Eruvin 100b). and: That doesn't imply that there is a valid morality independent of what is dictated by God for perhaps God dictated that it is "objectively very bad to kill one's son, no matter how much ... God wants them to do that" and yet still you are supposed to follow God's orders and break the morality which God set in place.
Jun 2, 2013 at 21:20 comment added yoel @DoubleAA respectively, Pirkey Avos 3:17 and "seems to be", based on the statement that it is "objectively very bad to kill one's son, no matter how much ... God wants them to do that".
Jun 2, 2013 at 20:28 comment added Double AA @yoel How do you know that is erroneous? And how do you know this question is based on that premise?
Jun 2, 2013 at 20:26 comment added yoel This question seems to be founded on an erroneous assumption that there is a valid morality independent of that which is dictated by G-d.
Jun 2, 2013 at 19:20 comment added Double AA @Aaliyah Ok, Who said we should be moral people?
Jun 2, 2013 at 19:11 comment added Aaliyah @DoubleAA the fact that they are objective morals would mean that any moral person should follow them. If you have an reason or source to doubt this, perhaps you should be more detailed than a rhetorical "who said".
Jun 2, 2013 at 5:10 history edited msh210 CC BY-SA 3.0
remove what seem to be completely separate questions; please re-edit if I'm mistaken!
Jun 2, 2013 at 3:45 comment added Double AA Who said we have to follow objective morals?
Jun 2, 2013 at 3:32 comment added Charles Koppelman closely related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/20672/…
Jun 1, 2013 at 23:01 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackJudaism/status/340966369770225664
Jun 1, 2013 at 2:21 history asked Aaliyah CC BY-SA 3.0