Timeline for Is human flesh considered fleishik?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 6, 2012 at 2:23 | vote | accept | Argon | ||
| Jul 5, 2012 at 3:20 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | @msh210 I assume it means "do they have a qualitatively unique status?". | |
| Jul 5, 2012 at 1:09 | history | edited | msh210♦ |
edited tags
|
|
| Jul 5, 2012 at 1:09 | comment | added | msh210♦ | What does "are they on a different level" mean? | |
| Jul 4, 2012 at 23:30 | answer | added | sam | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 4, 2012 at 23:05 | comment | added | sam | milk of a woman is parave,Shulchan Aruch Yoreh De'ah, 87:4 | |
| Jul 4, 2012 at 22:54 | history | edited | Argon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 110 characters in body
|
| Jul 4, 2012 at 22:36 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackJudaism/status/220647189897150465 | ||
| Jul 4, 2012 at 22:09 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | AFAIK the answer is that we're pareve. I feel like this has already been asked around here before... <commences hunting> | |
| Jul 4, 2012 at 22:09 | comment | added | jake | With regard to your second question, the answer is "no". Once it is already assur because of its nonkosher status, there is no additional issur added when it is cooked with milk. | |
| Jul 4, 2012 at 22:03 | history | edited | HodofHod |
edited tags
|
|
| Jul 4, 2012 at 22:02 | history | asked | Argon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |