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Timeline for When did Rus bring a korban?

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Aug 25, 2019 at 18:19 history edited user15464
edited tags
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:41 history edited CommunityBot
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Jul 28, 2013 at 23:42 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackJudaism/status/361632855962550272
Jun 17, 2012 at 16:58 comment added msh210 Closely related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/17118
Jun 6, 2012 at 14:20 comment added user1552 you have to learn through the sugya but I believe Rabbenu Channanel and the Shitah Mekubetzes spell this out.
Jun 6, 2012 at 14:15 comment added Seth J Source?(......)
Jun 6, 2012 at 13:48 comment added user1552 @SethJ it's not me'akev when there is no way to bring it but was me'akev when there was a mishkan/mikdash
Jun 6, 2012 at 13:44 comment added Seth J Don't we say that the Korban is not Me'akev (hence conversion today is valid without it)?
Jun 6, 2012 at 13:43 history edited Seth J CC BY-SA 3.0
Trying to make it more in line with Q&A format, rather than a leading "question" to post an answer/vort.
Jun 5, 2012 at 19:10 comment added Double AA Even the other hava amina is that lack of korban would prevent her from marrying a Jew. I still don't see why that means she can't have converted='became chayav in all mitzvot etc.' on the way. She doesn't even try to marry anyone until many months later.
Jun 5, 2012 at 17:05 history edited msh210 CC BY-SA 3.0
link. Also, the first few words seem to be talking about the question and not the g'mara's statement: I've clarified that.
Jun 5, 2012 at 14:52 comment added user1552 that is not correct according to the tana kamah and from the hemsheich of the gemarah 9a.
Jun 5, 2012 at 13:58 comment added Double AA -1 The Korban is only neccasary in order to enter the mikdash and eat other kodshim. She could convert on the way for every other practical purpose, and likely did as there is no need to bring the korban immediately upon conversion.
Jun 5, 2012 at 13:24 answer added user1552 timeline score: -1
Jun 5, 2012 at 13:24 history asked user1552 CC BY-SA 3.0