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Timeline for Is ראשית really in construct?

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Jul 18 at 11:46 comment added Al Berko Right, 1500-2000 years after the texts were recorded. From the Targums to the Mishna and the Talmud, we see many examples of sages not knowing the meaning of Biblical Hebrew words.
Jul 18 at 11:35 comment added magicker72 @AlBerko What are you talking about? Rashi and Ibn Ezra are contemporaries.
Jul 18 at 11:20 comment added Al Berko Keep in mind, that you compare sources that span many centuries and areas, so presumably, they didn't use the same Hebrew. Also, the commentators came some 1500-2000 years later and speculated about this long unspoken language.
Jul 18 at 10:46 comment added magicker72 @AlBerko I'm not asking for the "true answer", but for support for Rashi's opinion.
Jul 18 at 10:21 comment added Al Berko Please refrain from using "really" in questions. What does it mean? Do you expect one true answer that everybody agrees on? Seriously, in Judaism?
Jul 16 at 3:01 comment added magicker72 @Argon Thanks. Nice article, although of course it doesn't address this question.
Jul 14 at 9:27 comment added Joel K Rashi's position seems to be that there is always an implied subject that goes along with the construct. In Gen. 1:1 he explains Is. 46:10 should be read מגיד מראשית דבר אחרית דבר. In Deut. 33:21 he explains that the reading is וירא ראשית כיבוש הארץ לו. (It's possible that he explains other examples similarly - I haven't checked.)
Jul 14 at 4:05 comment added magicker72 @User123 Not necessarily (cf. מרשית השנה ועד אחרית שנה in Deut 11:12, where רשית השנה and אחרית שנה presumably have the same definite meaning; or Is 46:10 "from the beginning" and "the end", in some Jewish translations). As a midrashic answer, Rashi says that there were multiple beginnings. But that's not really the point. Rashi says that ראשית is always in construct, and there are plenty of examples of it not being in construct.
Jul 14 at 2:37 history asked magicker72 CC BY-SA 4.0