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Jun 16, 2020 at 10:41 history edited CommunityBot
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Feb 23, 2015 at 16:21 comment added Double AA @SethJ Is that something we want to encourage?
Feb 23, 2015 at 16:19 comment added Seth J @DoubleAA, is there a badge for having a negative score, yet being the preferred/accepted answer over others with a positive score? Regardless of how you feel about the answer, it is an impressive feat.
Feb 23, 2015 at 16:11 comment added mevaqesh Rambam doesnt say whether ad dlo yada is a part of the obligation to have a sehuda from the Megillah. In fact according to the Tashbetz there is no obligation to have a meal from the megillah (only from later rabanan), and according to Aruch Hashulchan and Nachal Eshkol Rambam doesnt hold of ad dlo yada, but rather like R' Ephrayim. Even ignoring these rather extreme views, you still have the Maharil who proves that there is no obligation to get drunk, as this isnt included in Mishte V'simcha. Rambam includes drinking as part of seudah but doesnt say that that is the mandated meal of Megilla
Feb 10, 2012 at 6:31 comment added user1095 I think that I will continue to follow my own practice of only getting massively sloshed (drunk) during the meal - but this is at minimum an excellent limud zchus for those who start imbibing from the morning. It still doesn't excuse the night of Purim drinkers...
Feb 10, 2012 at 6:29 vote accept CommunityBot
Feb 9, 2012 at 22:31 comment added Double AA If you are trying to distinguish 'feasting and celebrating' from the seudah, then that would be even more novel as the gemara derives the rule of seudah from those very words! Can you clarify exactly which category obligates what actions?
Feb 9, 2012 at 22:26 comment added Double AA In the final paragraph you quote it seems that the obligation of 'feasting and celebrating" that he refers to is what we call the seudah (by his contrast to matanot evyonim and shloch manot). In this case, he is stating that the mitzva of seudah is at any time during the day. You agree that drinking is during the seudah. I'm not following how you answer the question then. Do you think you can have multiple seudot during the day? Is every bite of meat a kiyum? of bread? These would all be very novel postions.
Feb 9, 2012 at 20:39 comment added Menachem I would agree with that, but I'm not saying that the drinking takes place of eating. from the part I quoted "It is possible to explain that the mitzvah of "feasting and celebrating" is distinguished from all the other mitzvos ordained by our Sages to be observed on Purim in that the obligation to observe this mitzvah applies during every moment of the festival of Purim. " . Perhaps reading the whole chapter inside may make it clearer: sichosinenglish.org/books/crown-jewels-2/02.htm#t4
Feb 9, 2012 at 20:34 comment added Double AA I don't see how you can conclude that. The rambam says to drink during the meal. The Rebbe says to eat the meal whenever you want during the day. You would agree with me that if someone drank all day but never broke bread that he hasn't fulfilled his obligation?
Feb 9, 2012 at 20:31 comment added Menachem @DoubleAA: If you would ask me, "I'm not sitting down to eat now, does the obligation to drink apply?" (which is what the questioner asked) I would answer yes, based on the answer I gave.
Feb 9, 2012 at 20:21 comment added Double AA So you agree you didn't answer the question?
Feb 9, 2012 at 20:18 comment added Menachem @DoubleAA: Which is why I brought the Rambam, who says that the obligation of the meal is fulfilled by intoxication.
Feb 9, 2012 at 20:06 comment added Double AA You showed the obligation of the meal lasts all day (a fact about which I know no dispute). The question was about drinking outside of the meal.
Feb 9, 2012 at 20:05 comment added Menachem @DoubleAA: I wasn't addressing drinking at night, but during the day, outside of the actual meal (the second half of the question, if you will). I was basically bringing that the obligation extends the whole day, so there is no time that is outside of the obligation.
Feb 9, 2012 at 19:46 comment added Double AA I don't understand: the gemara megilla 7b explicitly limits the mitzva of mishteh to the daytime and it derives it from the word 'yimei'. Even if you want to say that the Rebbe's idea fits with this gemara (which I don't), it certainly does not explain drinking at night. Additionally, he seems to be explaining why the obligation of the mishteh is all day; the question asked regarding drinking outside of the mishteh. -1
Feb 9, 2012 at 19:38 history answered Menachem CC BY-SA 3.0