Timeline for Kosher dish transfer? [duplicate]
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
16 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 20, 2022 at 1:46 | comment | added | msj121 | This is not a duplicate... There it is asking if it applies whereas here it is asking why it can't be done lechatchila. These appear to be very different questions. | |
| Jul 20, 2022 at 1:29 | comment | added | Chatzkel | @double AA it might not be the one that’s accepted by all opinions, but in regards to the question asked, is a straight forward simple answer. Once the pot is treif then you can’t use bitul and that’s why we always use separate dishes today. | |
| Jul 20, 2022 at 1:27 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | @Chatzkel That's hardly a simple answer. Really these are all chumras since we pretend we don't have a kfeila. Most rabbis forget that 99% of in-practice kashrut rulings are not actually derabanan nor deorayta, just midin that minhag | |
| Jul 20, 2022 at 1:27 | history | closed | Double AA♦ | Duplicate of Is Batel BeShishim relevant to issues regarding pots/pans/utensils? | |
| Jul 20, 2022 at 1:26 | comment | added | Chatzkel | Related judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/85453/… | |
| Jul 20, 2022 at 1:26 | comment | added | Chatzkel | The simple answer is that you need to have 60x the metal in the pot and that’s almost impossible. | |
| Jul 20, 2022 at 1:23 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | You'll surely agree that sometimes things can take on flavors of vessels they were cooked in. Sherry cask liquor is a thing for a reason. Those are the cases where it's more than "1/60" (1/60 being the rabbinic approximation for when perceptible flavor is added) | |
| Jul 20, 2022 at 0:58 | answer | added | msj121 | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 19, 2022 at 18:01 | comment | added | TreeKing | Then it would still be less than 1/60th | |
| Jul 19, 2022 at 17:51 | comment | added | robev | The meat taste in the pot doesn't go anywhere and if you cook with it it'll come out into the dairy food | |
| Jul 19, 2022 at 17:26 | comment | added | TreeKing | Obviously if the pot is not clean I agree. But if its a clean pot that was used for meat once, i dont see how the meat taste would be significant at all | |
| Jul 19, 2022 at 17:20 | comment | added | robev | Also taste is nullified in sixty because we assume it spread evenly. It doesn't necessarily spread evenly in pots/plates etc. | |
| Jul 19, 2022 at 16:21 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | "Taste in a utensil transferring is way less significant than 1/60th" This isn't always obvious. Depends what kind of material it is and what it was used with. | |
| Jul 19, 2022 at 16:19 | history | edited | Avrohom Yitzchok | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jul 19, 2022 at 16:15 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | We don't nullify small amounts of flavor on purpose; that's only for accidents. | |
| Jul 19, 2022 at 16:12 | history | asked | TreeKing | CC BY-SA 4.0 |