Skip to main content
4 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 17, 2022 at 1:07 comment added Shalom @TheEditor at face value, the Talmud implies that Genesis is addressed to all humans, but Exodus only to Jews; thus the penalty is greater for non-Jews than Jews. At least that's how many read it. But yes, Exodus is saying loss of the fetus is less than loss of the mother. (In any case where a death penalty might have been at stake, there is no monetary penalty.) Fetus is less than slave: a master who kills is a murderer, the verse says "it shall be avenged"; the exemption is for a miscalculated beating. With a fetus, Exodus seems to be saying as long as mom is alive, there is no murder here.
Jun 16, 2022 at 13:24 comment added The Editor Also, your reference to Genesis 9:6 gave me another question, posted here: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/129713/…
Jun 15, 2022 at 22:16 comment added The Editor Thanks for your reply. Contrary to what some say, I agree that figurative language should be read in light of more pertinent passages. In light of Genesis 9:6, would the general principle be that abortion is prohibited? And in light of Exodus 21:22, would negligent death to the fetus be regarded as less severe than negligent death to the mother? It does appear that the fetus is still called a "child" (yeled), so perhaps it's similar to how the negligent death of a slave is less severe than the death of others per Exodus 21:29-32, yet both slave and master are living persons. Is this correct?
Jun 15, 2022 at 10:13 history answered Shalom CC BY-SA 4.0