Timeline for Why no Oral Law in Rambam's 13 principles of faith?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 21, 2020 at 1:38 | comment | added | Turk Hill | It is implied in the and seventh and eighth principle(s). | |
| May 20, 2020 at 15:00 | answer | added | Chofetz Chaim | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 20, 2020 at 1:35 | history | rollback | Double AA♦ |
Rollback to Revision 2
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| May 20, 2020 at 1:32 | history | edited | Maurice Mizrahi | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 483 characters in body
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| May 19, 2020 at 4:51 | answer | added | chessprogrammer | timeline score: 6 | |
| May 19, 2020 at 4:23 | comment | added | Tamir Evan | Related: "Does Rambam include the Oral Torah in his eighth principle"? | |
| May 19, 2020 at 3:33 | history | edited | Alex |
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| May 19, 2020 at 3:28 | comment | added | Alex | judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/93379/… | |
| May 19, 2020 at 3:22 | comment | added | MichoelR | In the 8th he does say so explicitly, see his full statement in Peirush Hamishnah before Perek Chelek in Maseches Sanhedrin "וכמו כן פירש התורה המקובל ג"כ מפי הגבורה" etc. See there, it is clearly stated. | |
| May 19, 2020 at 2:47 | comment | added | Maurice Mizrahi | Oh, but it does. Especially here. To make the point loud and clear, you don't let your reader "infer". | |
| May 19, 2020 at 2:45 | comment | added | sabbahillel | The statement The Torah we have means both the written and the Oral Torah. It does not require an explicit statement. | |
| May 19, 2020 at 2:29 | history | asked | Maurice Mizrahi | CC BY-SA 4.0 |