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Feb 21 at 1:26 comment added user24193 As far as I know it’s not a Torah violation to have premarital sex or see a prostitute. But…neither is slavery or polygamy, yet they have been gotten rid of in most communities (polygamy is still practiced). It seems to be more a tradition and law the nation has taken upon itself.
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:42 history edited CommunityBot
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Oct 21, 2014 at 12:32 comment added user4951 Actually where did rabam says that all sex outside marriage is prostitution. I want to include that on my book
May 25, 2012 at 11:18 history protected Isaac Moses
Nov 14, 2011 at 14:21 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackJudaism/status/136086458787315713
Nov 14, 2011 at 4:22 vote accept user4951
Nov 14, 2011 at 0:14 answer added Shalom timeline score: 4
Nov 13, 2011 at 22:26 answer added Alex timeline score: 6
Nov 13, 2011 at 4:34 history edited Isaac Moses CC BY-SA 3.0
referenced verse and upgraded link.
Nov 13, 2011 at 4:27 history edited Isaac Moses
edited tags
Nov 13, 2011 at 1:58 history edited HodofHod CC BY-SA 3.0
added 27 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
Nov 12, 2011 at 8:17 comment added user4951 Note: This question leads to bunch of other questions. I wonder should I put them all at once or ask them separately. 1. What's wrong with prostitution? Why God prohibits it? 2. What does it mean by harlots and sodomites? 3. Now that we have paternity tests, do we still need marriage? 4. What does marriage mean? 5. What about all non jews with different marital "deals". In jewish sense, they're not marrying right? 6. When contemporary civil marriage differ from biblical marriage significantly, which definition of marriage hold?
Nov 12, 2011 at 8:15 history asked user4951 CC BY-SA 3.0