Timeline for Did HaShem ever command a Navi (Prophet) to break a law?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 19, 2019 at 0:38 | comment | added | user18041 | For starters, your main assumption might be wrong (Genesis 18:8). Secondly, observance does not necessarily imply awareness (e.g., many pagans, for instance, never break any of the moral laws described in Leviticus 18, despite not having any knowledge of the Mosaic revelation on Mount Sinai). Thirdly, Abraham's contemporaries certainly weren't aware of it, and child sacrifice seems to have been the norm back then. He personally doesn't seem to suspect anything wrong either, when asked to do the same. | |
| Sep 18, 2019 at 6:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackJudaism/status/1174201547930120193 | ||
| Sep 17, 2019 at 23:50 | answer | added | Alex | timeline score: 6 | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 22:15 | answer | added | JoshuaZ | timeline score: 9 | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 22:02 | history | became hot network question | |||
| Sep 17, 2019 at 17:18 | answer | added | Meir | timeline score: 10 | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 15:22 | comment | added | Loewian | LIkewise, whenever G-d commands waging of war, that clearly overrides murder and theft (e.g. re Midian). | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 15:21 | comment | added | Loewian | Also, when Moshe originally gave the Torah, he overrode Noachide laws. | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 15:19 | comment | added | Loewian | Hosea 1:2 doesn't sound very much in the spirit of the law. | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 14:44 | comment | added | Al Berko | 2. By definition, whatever G-d says becomes a part of the Torah. For example, G-d commands not to murder. Sometime later G-d says to stone the Mekoshesh (sounds a bit contradictory to me). But we don't raise an eyebrow, because once G-d commands - it becomes a new commandment. | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 14:42 | comment | added | Al Berko | 1. The "Torah" as we know it, contains a logical contradiction allowing for any possible behavior and that is formulated as "עת לעשות לה' הפרו תורתך" - it's time to do for Hashem, to override Your Torah". So each time a commandment is broken by a prominent figure we can always justify it by that rule - Moses breaking the Tablets, Yaakov marrying sisters, etc. | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 14:05 | comment | added | Meir | @Salmononius2 It doesn't say "Hashem said to Eliyahu, etc.," but Eliyahu himself does say ובדברך עשיתי את כל הדברים האלה. | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 13:52 | comment | added | Salmononius2 | Are you specifically asking where it's specifically written that Hashem commands the Navi to break the law, or any time a Navi breaks the law (with implied permission)? There is the famous story with Eliyahu and the Baal worshippers, which was allowed due to Hora'as Sha'ah, but I don't think it was explicitly written in the Navi that Hashem asked Eliyahu to make that specific test. | |
| Sep 17, 2019 at 13:48 | history | asked | Lages | CC BY-SA 4.0 |