Timeline for Why Ruth is called Ruth, the Moabite, when Balak, her direct male-line ancestor, was actually a midianite?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 25, 2019 at 13:07 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | @sabba Shmuel would have written Ruth for a different reason, not to prove that moavya is ok. You've just cited another midrash from that same set which this would be disagreeing with. No big deal | |
| Jul 25, 2019 at 13:06 | comment | added | sabbahillel | @DoubleAA If that was the case, then there would have been no question about Doviv Hamelech and Shmuel would not have needed to write Megillas Ruth. | |
| Jul 25, 2019 at 11:04 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | If we're using midrash contradiction we can just say she didn't need that drasha to marry in because she indeed wasn't moabite. Maybe there indeed was never a doubt that she was fine. | |
| Jul 25, 2019 at 4:07 | history | answered | Menachem | CC BY-SA 4.0 |