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is this clearer?
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Monica Cellio
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When beseeching God, why does the kohein gadol sayappeal to "the torah of Moshe" and not directly to "your torah"?

not a prophet (thanks msh210)
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Monica Cellio
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Yoma 6:2 reports what the kohein gadol says over the goat to be offered:

“Please, ‘Hashem’! They have done wrong, they have transgressed, they have sinned before You, Your people the House of Israel. Please, in the name of Hashem (Bashem)! Forgive the wrongdoings, the transgressions, the sins which your people, the House of Israel, have committed and transgressed and sinned before You, as it is written in the torah of Moses Your servant: “For on this day shall atonement be made for you [to cleanse you of all your sins; you shall be clean before the Lord”] (Leviticus 16:30)

This seems an odd time to be indirect about attribution. We're appealing for forgiveness from the One who gave us the torah we cite, but instead of saying "your torah" to make that connection very clear, the kohein gadol says "the torah of Moshe your servant" ( בְּתוֹרַת משֶׁה עַבְדֶּךָ). Why that phrasing? Would "your torah" be too direct or pushy? But at least one prophetnotable person in Tanakh uses "your torah"; Daniel 9:11 has both "your torah" and "the torah of Moshe" in the same verse (h/t Alex).

Yoma 6:2 reports what the kohein gadol says over the goat to be offered:

“Please, ‘Hashem’! They have done wrong, they have transgressed, they have sinned before You, Your people the House of Israel. Please, in the name of Hashem (Bashem)! Forgive the wrongdoings, the transgressions, the sins which your people, the House of Israel, have committed and transgressed and sinned before You, as it is written in the torah of Moses Your servant: “For on this day shall atonement be made for you [to cleanse you of all your sins; you shall be clean before the Lord”] (Leviticus 16:30)

This seems an odd time to be indirect about attribution. We're appealing for forgiveness from the One who gave us the torah we cite, but instead of saying "your torah" to make that connection very clear, the kohein gadol says "the torah of Moshe your servant" ( בְּתוֹרַת משֶׁה עַבְדֶּךָ). Why that phrasing? Would "your torah" be too direct or pushy? But at least one prophet uses "your torah"; Daniel 9:11 has both "your torah" and "the torah of Moshe" in the same verse (h/t Alex).

Yoma 6:2 reports what the kohein gadol says over the goat to be offered:

“Please, ‘Hashem’! They have done wrong, they have transgressed, they have sinned before You, Your people the House of Israel. Please, in the name of Hashem (Bashem)! Forgive the wrongdoings, the transgressions, the sins which your people, the House of Israel, have committed and transgressed and sinned before You, as it is written in the torah of Moses Your servant: “For on this day shall atonement be made for you [to cleanse you of all your sins; you shall be clean before the Lord”] (Leviticus 16:30)

This seems an odd time to be indirect about attribution. We're appealing for forgiveness from the One who gave us the torah we cite, but instead of saying "your torah" to make that connection very clear, the kohein gadol says "the torah of Moshe your servant" ( בְּתוֹרַת משֶׁה עַבְדֶּךָ). Why that phrasing? Would "your torah" be too direct or pushy? But at least one notable person in Tanakh uses "your torah"; Daniel 9:11 has both "your torah" and "the torah of Moshe" in the same verse (h/t Alex).

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msh210
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Tweeted twitter.com/StackJudaism/status/1141994297597804544
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Monica Cellio
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Monica Cellio
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