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Jul 18 at 1:20 answer added Y DJ timeline score: 0
May 9, 2019 at 3:07 answer added ezra timeline score: 1
May 8, 2019 at 21:03 comment added sabbahillel @ninamag You reference modern articles. That is used as a modern colloquialism in the same way that Megilas Esther refers to Mordechai the Jew of the tribe of Benjamin
May 8, 2019 at 13:45 comment added ninamag @AlBerko 1. the rabbis and we the laymen 2. Jew as opposed to Israelite 3. I am not saying we should only use one term, but that why are we using Jew when the Torah passage uses Israel?
May 8, 2019 at 13:38 comment added Al Berko I'm on your side, I'm trying to improve your question. You need to clarify: 1. Who's we - we the Rabbis, the interpreters, the laymen? 2. "Jew" as opposed to what? 3. What do you think "we" should use instead?
May 8, 2019 at 13:24 comment added ninamag @AlBerko all you have to do is search the term "Abraham, the Jew" and/or "Joseph, the Jew", in either articles, these two terms that you claim you have "Never heard of".
May 8, 2019 at 13:16 comment added Al Berko Sorry very long, which line? Do you mean "Jew" as opposed to what - to Gentile, to Binyomin, to israeli?
May 8, 2019 at 13:09 comment added ninamag @AlBerko "Does anybody say ... Yosef the Jew? Never heard of." Here is one example for you: blogs.timesofisrael.com/…
May 8, 2019 at 13:05 comment added ninamag @AlBerko "Does anybody say Abraham the Jew ...? Never heard of." Here is one example for you. israelnationalnews.com/Articles/Article.aspx/17309
May 8, 2019 at 12:20 review Close votes
May 10, 2019 at 6:52
May 8, 2019 at 12:06 comment added Double AA Answer: because we speak English.
May 8, 2019 at 12:06 comment added Al Berko Please provide an example of such "do we use the term "Jew" or "Jewish" when referencing people in the Torah/Chumash passages". Does anybody say Abraham the Jew or Yosef the Jew? Never heard of. Or you're asking why we TREAT them as Jews, before Matan Torah, obligating them in Mitzvos?
May 8, 2019 at 12:04 history edited Al Berko
edited tags
May 8, 2019 at 10:39 comment added rosends "We" do when speaking loosely, with others who understand the naming convenience and what are really referencing and "we" don't when being precise or trying to be clear with people who won't understand the short hand.
May 8, 2019 at 7:28 comment added Joel K @ninamag It's possible that the Jews in the shul are mistaken and/or speaking colloquially.
May 8, 2019 at 7:20 comment added ninamag @DonielF that is fine answer by me, but can you also source a rabbinical answer?
May 8, 2019 at 7:19 comment added ninamag @JoelK we as in we jews in the shul.
May 8, 2019 at 6:31 comment added DonielF The Torah itself refers to places frequently by names which, at the time of the incident in question, they were not yet called (ex. Tzo’ar in Bereishis 13 and 14, but it’s not named until ch. 19). Why is this any different; it’s a name which we use for ourselves nowadays which we’re all familiar with, so why not apply it to even before we were called as such?
May 8, 2019 at 6:03 comment added Joel K Who is "we"? (15 char)
May 8, 2019 at 5:27 history asked ninamag CC BY-SA 4.0