Timeline for Halachic authority of books

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Feb 8 '13 at 11:45 comment added Shimon bM This is a massive question, and you should be aware that the attitudes you reference, to a large extent, only came into existence with the invention of Orthodoxy - not with the publication of the Shulchan Arukh. What you are asking is likely to be answered from the perspective of hashkafa. There are plenty of examples of both rishonim and acharonim impugning earlier authorities, and effectively siding with the mishna, the tosefta or the yerushalmi over the bavli and other rishonim.
Feb 8 '13 at 3:01 history edited Seth J
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Oct 23 '11 at 4:48 answer Shmuel timeline score: 0
Oct 3 '11 at 3:24 answer Ariel K timeline score: 1
Oct 2 '11 at 21:42 answer ertert3terte timeline score: 2
Sep 28 '11 at 1:02 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackJudaism/status/118852989959147520
Sep 27 '11 at 19:21 comment added Seth J @yoel That's not really my question, but, for example: in the RI"F's day it (apparently) wasn't seen as rude to rule in favor of one opinion over the other without explanation, but of course by the RaMBa"M's time it clearly was not acceptable (in the eyes of his contemporaries; although he apparently thought it was) for him to rule without citation of prior authorities. Later we have the Tur and Shulḥan 'Aruch doing something similar. Again, that's not really my question. I'm more interested in the nature, scope, permanence and especially the source of the authority.
Sep 27 '11 at 18:25 comment added yoel Could you give some examples of where an later source challenges an earlier source without basing themselves on another earlier source?
Sep 27 '11 at 17:57 history asked Seth J CC BY-SA 3.0