In a few places in the Torah, the word למה is pronounced מלעיל (accent on 1st syllable) and in other places מלרע (accent on 2nd syllable.)
I viewed Bemidbar 11:11 which has both in the same verse. The 1st one has a mahpach under the word is מלרע , and the 2nd has a tevir and is מלעיל . The 2nd is not a case of נסוג אחור.
Is there a difference in meaning with these two versions, and if so, what is it? Otherwise, what are the rules governing which one is used? Does it have to do with the trope note?