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In Nusach Sfard, why is the phrase "Hashem Melech; Hashem Malach; Hashem yimloch l'olam va'ed" repeated in the paragraph after Tehillim 30?* I've heard it has everything to do with the writings of the Arizal, but I'm not sure.

This question is unique to Nusach Sfard and the Sephardi nusachot, in somewhat of a follow-up to my previous question regarding the phrase's repetition in "Az Yashir".

* "Mizmor shir chanukat habayit l'David..." You can see what I'm talking about here.

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  • I believe that even outside of this specific repetition, and Nusach Ashkenaz, this verse is the one said most often during the day. There must be something extremely important about saying this verse, in particular. Just a hunch that this may play a factor to answering the question.
    – DanF
    Commented Feb 8, 2018 at 16:05
  • It's there in all Mizrachi and Italian minhagim. I suppose it should be something older than Arizal, but it's just a guess...
    – Kazi bácsi
    Commented Feb 8, 2018 at 16:40
  • related: ykr.org.il/question/9490
    – user9643
    Commented Feb 8, 2018 at 20:23
  • The Beis Yosef gives a reason for it, but I don't understand it, so I'll just leave it here as a link.
    – user9643
    Commented Feb 13, 2018 at 20:46
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    @DanF, it's actually a combination of three pesukim. Ezra, they also repeat this at Bevis Marks in London, so I would suspect that it's not Lurianic.
    – Noach MiFrankfurt
    Commented Apr 10, 2018 at 2:34

1 Answer 1

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The Ben Ish Chai writes (Year 1, Vayigash, par. 1) that the reason it is repeated is to crown Hashem as king over the body and the soul.

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  • Refer to my comment to OP. Could this be the motivation as to why this verse is said most often throughout the day, but esp, during Shacharit? In trying to understand your answer, does he mean once for the body and a second time for the soul?
    – DanF
    Commented Feb 8, 2018 at 22:44
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    @DanF Could be. Note also that he says it's "al derech" (similar) to saying "Hashem Hu Ha'Elokim" twice as mentioned in Nach.
    – user9643
    Commented Feb 8, 2018 at 22:46
  • @DanF For your second question, yes. Or perhaps the fact of saying it twice signifies both, not necessarily one for each.
    – user9643
    Commented Feb 8, 2018 at 22:47

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