432 reputation
110
bio website
location United States
age 33
visits member for 1 year, 11 months
seen Oct 3 at 4:19

Apr
7
accepted A quote of Shlomo ibn Gabirol
Apr
7
comment A quote of Shlomo ibn Gabirol
The difference between מודה and מורה seems to be a scribal error as a result of confusion between ד and ר. As I'm sure you know, such confusion was even common in the Tanakh. Great answer btw.
Apr
7
asked A quote of Shlomo ibn Gabirol
Mar
31
asked Mishna, Brakhot 2a: When the kohanim enter…where?
Mar
24
comment Why was there a covenant cut with the benei Yisra'el at Sinai, then at Chorev, and yet again at Mo'av?
@Menachem: I will certainly accept that. Yet, there's still the matter of a covenant at Chorev/ Sinai and another at Mo'av.
Mar
24
revised Why was there a covenant cut with the benei Yisra'el at Sinai, then at Chorev, and yet again at Mo'av?
edited title
Mar
24
asked Why was there a covenant cut with the benei Yisra'el at Sinai, then at Chorev, and yet again at Mo'av?
Mar
23
revised Infinite Chain of Cause/Effects
edited body
Mar
23
revised Infinite Chain of Cause/Effects
deleted 7 characters in body
Mar
23
answered Infinite Chain of Cause/Effects
Mar
22
awarded  Citizen Patrol
Mar
22
revised וַיהוָה נָתַן אֶת־חֵן הָעָם בְּעֵינֵי מִצְרַיִם (Exo. 12:36): How did Adonai give “favor” (חֵן)?
added 58 characters in body
Mar
22
comment וַיהוָה נָתַן אֶת־חֵן הָעָם בְּעֵינֵי מִצְרַיִם (Exo. 12:36): How did Adonai give “favor” (חֵן)?
Basically, how is it that God caused the Egyptians to look upon the Israelites favorably? It seems to me that He had to work upon their heart or something. You know...the text implies a change of disposition. How did God affect that change?
Mar
22
asked וַיהוָה נָתַן אֶת־חֵן הָעָם בְּעֵינֵי מִצְרַיִם (Exo. 12:36): How did Adonai give “favor” (חֵן)?
Mar
22
comment Ezekiel 16:4: לֹא הֻמְלַחַתְּ — what practice does this describe?
@jake: Well, Christianity.SE wasn't an option no matter what, because it's not a question one would ask there (i.e., it's not related to Christian doctrine, per se). I think it obviously refers to a Jewish practice. A Jew (Ezekiel) wrote about it, and the implication of the particular pasuk is that it was a common practice during that time. So, yes, Jewish practice indeed. I know of no Christian sources that have ever mentioned Christians practicing that. Now, I suppose I could have asked on BH.SE, but, I don't think the answers would have been as plentiful. It's kind of a judgment thing.
Mar
22
comment Ezekiel 16:4: לֹא הֻמְלַחַתְּ — what practice does this describe?
@jake: Because I don't think either of those SE sites can answer the question, "Do any rabbis explain the meaning?" better than Judaism.SE. :)
Mar
22
comment Ezekiel 16:4: לֹא הֻמְלַחַתְּ — what practice does this describe?
@Seth J: What religious subject is he writing on?
Mar
22
accepted Ezekiel 16:4: לֹא הֻמְלַחַתְּ — what practice does this describe?
Mar
21
comment Ezekiel 16:4: לֹא הֻמְלַחַתְּ — what practice does this describe?
Yes, it means "you were not salted," but the verse implies that other infants were indeed salted, as well as washed with water, have their umbilicus cut, and swaddled (other verbs present in the same verse).
Mar
21
asked Ezekiel 16:4: לֹא הֻמְלַחַתְּ — what practice does this describe?