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15

In British English, "corn" can mean any grain, not just maize (the plant native to America). See Merriam-Webster; Wiktionary.


9

In Beraishis 41 (45) Osnat is mentioned as the daughter of Potifera. Rashi comments there on the change of name. He says: Poti-phera: He is Potiphar, but he was called Poti-phera because he became emasculated since he desired Joseph for homosexual relations. — [from Sotah 13b]. So we see that he was not emasculated until he desired Joseph.


7

Asked and answered here. it seems quite likely that this is a later interpolation; it doesn't appear in early prints of Rashi. In several places, though, Rashi refers to לשון כנען, which was a popular term at the time for the Slavic languages (based on the equation of "Slav" with "slave" and the association of the latter with Canaan). These ...


7

To add a little bit: This sentence (in Hebrew: ותשובה ותפלה וצדקה מעבירין את רוע הגזרה, uteshuva utefila utzedaqa ma'avirin et roa' hagezeira) is from the well-known piyyut (liturgical poem) Unetaneh Tokef, which is recited during the High Holidays. It is attributed (probably apocryphally) to a certain 11th-century rabbi, Amnon of Mainz but is probably a ...


7

See Mishne Berurah 285:3 that even names like Reuvain and Shimon are read שנים מקרא ואחד תרגום. This is based on the Gemara Berachos 8 that even "Ataros veDivon" (city names) whose Targum does not add anything are included in the mitzva of שנים מקרא ואחד תרגום. The parshios hanesiim clearly have the same halacha and are read in Targum.


7

The word means "virgin". M'tzudas David (commentary on Joel) says it refers to someone mourning over her first husband, that is the husband she had married when she had been a virgin. (Hence also the "husband of her youth" bit.) A woman is closer, he explains, to such a husband than to a second husband.


7

The word here is "betulah", which specifically means "virgin." ("alma" is simply "young woman.") Many translators prefer "maiden" as it implies virginity but it's less explicit. Your assumption is basically correct. The Torah has laws about what happens if a "betrothed" (i.e. married, but unconsummated) virgin cheats on her husband, or is raped. ...


7

It would seem that at the time of Yosef's employment Potiphor was NOT a eunich based on the pasuk and Rashi Breshit Chapter 39 Pasuk 19 :וַיְהִי כִשְׁמֹעַ אֲדֹנָיו אֶת דִּבְרֵי אִשְׁתּוֹ אֲשֶׁר דִּבְּרָה אֵלָיו לֵאמֹר כַּדְּבָרִים הָאֵלֶּה עָשָׂה לִי עַבְדֶּךָ וַיִּחַר אַפּוֹ Now it came about when his master heard his wife's report that she spoke to him, ...


5

Perush Yonason asks this question and does not give an answer. I once heard an answer (do not remember from who) which is difficult to accept. Levi lived 137 years in Egypt. The problems with this answer is numerous, and I think this is a question that has no good answer.


5

Wikipedia. As described there, Neusner has been criticized by the following scholars in his field of study: [Shaye J. D. Cohen, "Jacob Neusner, Mishnah and Counter-Rabbinics," Conservative Judaism, Vol.37(1) Fall 1983 p. 48-63] [Craig A. Evans, "Mishna and Messiah 'In Context'," Journal of Biblical Literature, (JBL), 112/2 1993, p. 267-289] ...


4

The word "חַטָּאִים‏" (with a Patach under the Chet and a Dagesh Chazak in the Tet) means sinners. See for example Tehillim 25:8. The word "חֲטָאִים‏" (with a Chataf-Patach under the Chet) means sins. See for example Kohelet 10:4. Without punctuation the word can be read both ways. Bruria is telling R' Meir that praying for them to die is not ...


4

http://www.themercava.com/dafyomi This is a website which has the translation of each phrase in gemara as one hovers over the phrase, not sure how much of the Gemara they have done though.


4

The sefer Binyan Ariel explains that since the gemara in Sotah implies that Pharaoh did know Hebrew (Loshon Hakodesh), it was not the language of the land of Canaan, and so they were safe in assuming that the interpreter also only understood the Canaan language (the language which they had been using to speak to Yosef) but not Hebrew. Therefore they were not ...


4

It literally means "a joyful Purim". The words "I wish you" that should accompany it are missing but if you want to say it in proper English then "I wish you a joyful Purim" would do the job. Google Translate has "A happy Purim". Maybe you need to cast lots to decide which to use. (Purim means "lots").


3

Rabbi Mordechai Hochman, in "הבנים שאינם נראים"( also in "גרשום – 'הגבר' שבחבורה"), brings the question of how could Levi have lived to see Mosheh and Aharon, but also mentions that the same problem exists for Kehat having lived to see Pinchas (i.e. Eliyahu; see Targum [Pseudo-]Yonatan on v. 18). To answer this, he brings Liqutei Moharan I:173, which says ...


3

The sefer באורי אונקלוס here explains: There is a wide range of opinions as to what the word שלמים means - whether the word is cognate with שלום (peace) or שלימות (completeness) or תשלומים (payment) (Rashi, Ramban and Rashbam), and really the word connotes all these meanings together. And because a direct Aramaic translation cannot similarly signify ...


3

I hereby nullify any expression of intent or condition or disclaimer, and disclaimers that result from my disclaimers (lit. that come out from within) ad infinatum, and invalidate any witnesses of my disclaimer against the vow that I am about to make. It is a declaration discounting any attempt to invalidate a vow, in order to make the vow absolutely ...


3

I'll try to answer this question by quoting from Tov, E. (2001). Textual criticism of the Hebrew Bible. (2nd ed.). Minneapolis: Augsberg Fortress. In Tov's words: The Septuagint is a Jewish translation which was made mainly in Alexandria. Its Hebrew source differed greatly from the other textual witnesses (the Masoretic text, the Targumim, the Peshitta, ...


3

As a strict language question, that should be asked on Hebrew.SE, which is where I think the question is coming from. From a Jewish perspective, it refers to the "my people" in that sentence. From a strict language point of view, it could arguably be ambiguous (מו - the suffix is sometimes singular if the context indicates it), however according to all of ...


3

Let's put aside all the midrashim for a moment. Pharaoh's officers are described as "sarisim." Ramban says that in fact, we don't know whether that always means "eunuch", or that because so many kings' officers were eunuchs in Biblical times that the Torah uses that word generically for a king's officers.


3

The following site uses the Soncino translation: http://dtorah.com/otzar/shas_soncino.php?ms=Shabbath&df=28b


3

According to the annotations in the prayer book itself, this appears to be a version of the Kel Malei Rachamim prayer by England's Chief Rabbi Rabbi Nathan Adler (Chief Rabbi from 1845 until his death in 1890), as edited by the Chief Rabbi (and author of the siddur linked to in the question), Rabbi Joseph Hertz (Chief Rabbi of the United Kingdom from 1913 ...


3

On a logical basis, the repetition of the pesukim is in and of itself necessary and teaches a lesson. Thus, it would appear that in order to fulfill שנים מקרא אחד תרגום one would have to do the targum for each pasuk as one does the mikre. If one were to be able to skip the targum then one would be able to skip the mikre. Another example could be Vayedaber ...


3

Tol'dos Yitzchak (by Rabbi Yitzchak Karo, uncle of the Bes Yosef) has two explanations: "to tell you whoever sees a sota in her detriment…": its explanation is as a way of a command: he's obliged to swear off of wine, in his seeing her death due to the drinking of wine…. And it is also natural: … "whoever sees a sota in her ...


2

in chabad chassidus the first question is a foundation and commonly brought up and answered all over the place there are hundreds of pages on it alone and in a nutshell heres the main point the command is to try your best at loving hashem by thinking about certain things that will inspire love ( one of the most common is consider his greatness and the fact ...


2

The sefer ביאורי אונקלוס here (posuk 21) writes: ידוע שדרכו תמיד שלא לדבר בכפל לשון בכל מקום שאפשר להביא מלה אחרת מפני יופי הלשון It is well known that it is the way of Onkelos not to use the same word twice in the same posuk if it is possible to use a different word (a synonym) for the beautification of the language.


2

שרת"י במדינות on תרגום יונתן cites אגרא דכלה: ואפשר ס"ל, דלא מנה הכתוב רק אותן שנים אחר שנולדו לו הבנים, ולא מנו אותן השנים קודם שבא למצרים. ולפי זה היה משה קרוב לשבע שנים כשמת לוי "Perhaps, he understands that the verse only counted those years after he gave birth to children, and didn't count the years before he arrived in Egypt. According to this, ...


2

SA OC 285:1 States the requirement is 2 times mikra and 1 time Targum. It is clear from the commentaries that Targum means Targum Unkilus. 285:2 allows Rashi, stating the both are done by one who fears Heaven. MB 5 (and Be'er Heiteiv 3) quote the Taz, recomending a good explanatory text such as Tzeiena Ur'ena, to be used in place of Rashi, if the person is ...


2

Mechon Mamre has the introduction translated interlinearly though not artscroll-style. Sefaria has a number of chapters (see here for one) translated with the english side-by-side, mostly in Sefer HaMadda. Because the translation is crowd-sourced (though moderated for accuracy) that "number" may be larger by the time you click the link. (full disclosure: I ...


1

Repentance, Prayer, and Charity (Mavirim =) take away (Mevatlim =) destroys the bad decree.



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