New answers tagged shevatim-12-tribes
Sure. We see in Yehoshua 1:13-15 that he reminds all two and a half tribes of "what Moshe the servant of Hashem commanded you," and after it's all over he calls all of them (Yehoshua 22:1-3) and praises them for keeping their word, using the same expression. Meshech Chochma explains why the condition wasn't explicitly mentioned by Moses to the half tribe of ...
Jair Ben Menashe had been responsible for conquering the territory and was given it by Moshe. (In particular the land of Bashan that had been previously ruled by Og). And therefore it was offered to him. This section of Devarim 3: 12-18 explains how the tribe of Menashe got involved, my source linked here: ...
There are a number of answers offered at http://www.aish.com/tp/i/moha/97763584.html The first two tribes, Reuven and Gad, were involved in the negotiations with Moshe from the outset. How did the tribe or part of the tribe of Menashe get themselves involved in this? The text itself is silent; therefore the commentaries feel free to offer different ...
The Gur Aryeh explains this Rashi. He cites the question of Rabbi Eliyahu Mizrachi (the Re'em) והקשה הרא״ם, דכבר כתיב בפרשת שלח (במדבר יג, ל-טו) שנים עשר אנשים, כל אחד בשמו, ולא נכתב כלל אחד משבט לוי עמהם, and then answers: ואין זה קשיא, דהאי ׳מגיד׳, פירושו, מה שהוצרך משה רבנו עליו השלום לומר לישראל ״שנים עשר אנשים״, כדי לומר משה לישראל ...
Sifsei Chachamim brings this question from Rabi Elazar Mizrachi who left it as a question. The Sifsei Chachamim goes on to suggest that this limud is to tell us that Shevet Levi was not even involved in the council to send spies. He quotes Rashi, who's words are now clearer, who says Levi was not with them, but did not say Levi did not go with them.
You write in your question: "isn't it better that the Jewish People are unified?" I think there is no contradiction between the division into the tribes and the unification of the Jewish People. Each tribe has their land allotment and their specific purpose specific for their tribe, however at the same time they share their unification on a higher level, ...
Yosef made this rule two years into the hunger. That is the same time the brothers came. Perhaps the rule was after they came. And an even more intriguing approach is that he didn't literally show them a body part, but rather proved to them, and showed them that he is Mahul, precisely with this ruling.
The Taz asks this question in his Divrei Dovid and answers that Yosef had not actually attempted to have the Egyptians circumcise themselves, he was merely proving to them to what extent they were required to heed his every command. Then afterwards there was no circumcision carried out.
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