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9

There are a few hints to the Oral Torah in the Chumash, but nothing explicit. One of these is found in Devarim 12:21: וְזָבַחְתָּ מִבְּקָרְךָ וּמִצֹּאנְךָ אֲשֶׁר נָתַן יְהֹוָה לְךָ כַּאֲשֶׁר צִוִּיתִךָ you may slaughter of your cattle and of your sheep, which the Lord has given you, as I have commanded you The problem is that we don't find ...


8

In order for the Torah Shebal Peh to be "added" to the Torah it would be necessary to conclude from independent evidence that it wasn't part of the Torah to begin with. To argue that Torah Shebal Peh is not divine because it was "added" is to either argue in a circle or merely beg the question. The verse does not proscribe adding to the "written" Torah but ...


5

I would like to supplement the important answers which proceeded me: The "Oral Torah" is mentioned "explicitly" in the sense that [according to our tradition] it is the subject being directly referred to in places such as the verse cited in DanF's answer. On the other hand, the "concept" or "doctrine" of Oral Torah is not stated explicitly in the same ...


5

According to the introduction to Rambam's Mishnah Torah the Torah does mention the Oral law in the verse Shmot (Ex) 24:12. My loose translation: "... I shall give you the stone tablets, the Torah and the mitzvah that I have written to teach them". Ramba"m explains that the word "Torah" means the written law, and the word "mitzvah" means the Oral Law. Yes, ...


4

The question as currently phrased is asked by, among others, R. Yosef Albo in Sefer HaIkarim 3:23 (which is why I'm unsure as to why it still has a negative score). Since I don't have a better way of doing this, I'm going to just paste here what I wrote to this similar question, with a couple of variations. 1. Idiomatic Expressions Some differences between ...


3

There's another way to approach this question. Consider the US constitution, l'havdil. We have not only the original document, and a record of all the debates during it's composition, but also extensive writings of each of those that participated in it's writing regarding exactly what they meant when they wrote it. Additionally we have a great body of ...


2

There are different opinions regarding this ruling of דברים שבעל פה אי אתה רשאי לאומרן בכתב. Rabbi Shlomo Zalman Ehrenreich suggested that the Rambam doesn't bring this ruling because in his opinion it's only Rabbinically forbidden. Opinions that it's Biblical: שו"ת חתם סופר או"ח סי' ר"ח. גם בס' חרדים (פ"ב מצות התלויות בעינים) עיי"ש, וכ"כ בשו"ת תשב"ץ ח"א ...


2

Generally speaking we do follow the simple meaning of the text. The issue arises when the simple meaning of the text contradicts itself. See Bava Kama 83b. The simple meaning of Exodus 21:24 and Leviticus 24:20 is certainly that if someone blinds a person, they themselves are blinded, and if they dismember someone they are treated in kind, etc. However, ...


2

Introduction What could be contained in this question, and manner in which we answer it, is going to depend on several things. First of all, we should clarify what we're asking about: your specific question mentioned only phrases that needed 'reinterpretation', but there are many more cases that deserve inquiry, such as gezairah shavas (see the Rambam's ...


1

Read the first 4 paragraphs toRambam's Mishneh Torah. It cites an important verse as the proof that the Torah shebichtav (written) and B'al Peh (Oral) were both given on Mt. Sinai and were both taught by Moses. The remaining paragraphs go through various generations until he explains how the Oral law became written in the form of the Mishnah. Rather than my ...


1

Rashi brings the description of the Leviathan as unique sea creature that was not allowed to reproduce. There are many opinions that the meal served to the righteous will be a physical meal, so we are talking about a unique kind of fish that would not normally be seen. The Baal HaTanya describes the idea of the Leviathan (and the Shor HaBar) metaphorically. ...



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