Tag Info

New answers tagged

0

(a) Why have I only seen this in Sefard siddurim? It's also in the Siddur compiled by the first Chabad Rebbe. He mainly based his Siddur on the Siddur Ha-Ari from the Ari Za"l, (who was one of the foremost Kabbalists of recent history), so it's possible that it came from there, although I don't have a Siddur Ha-Ari to verify. But to answer your ...


0

Why is this passage only printed for erev Shabbat? It's not. I mean, this passage is, but many sidurim have other passages that are said instead of various other instances of "Bar'chu", chatzi kadish, and kadish shalem.


0

(a) Because only sefard says kegavna before barechu. (b) The reason is because that passage of zohar is about the moments when shabbos comes in and parallels some kabbalistic stuff to different points in the prayer service. So when there is a minyan we cut the passage short and segue into barechu, but when there isn't we might as well read the rest of the ...


0

Personally, I've only seen this in Chabad's Siddur (actually might have seen it elsewhere as well come to think of it). In short, without getting into details, as far as I can tell, it is based upon the kabbalah/the teachings of the Arizal about the "Barchu" before Shabbos Maariv. Therefore, for one that is missing out on this from their davening, an ...



Top 50 recent answers are included