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In terms of deriving benefit from the actions done by a Jew on Shabbat the Shulchan Aruch (OC 318:1 and Mishna Berurah and Biur Halacha there) distinguish between a number of cases: If a biblical prohibition was violated purposefully (deoraita bemeizid) then no one can derive benefit from it for the rest of shabbat, and the violator himself cannot derive ...


3

An excerpt from the source you linked: Dvar sheina mitchaven: Doing a permitted action in a way in which one doesn’t intend for a melacha to occur as a byproduct of one’s intended action is considered a dvar sheina mitchaven. Nonetheless, when it is inevitable that amelacha will take place as a result of one’s ...


2

In short, no you have not been mechallel shabbos. However there's an issur d'rabonon in both cases. In the case of putting something into the oven, the food has to reach "ochel Ben deurso". Which is about 1/3 cooked in order to violate shabbos. In the case of the seed it's trickier aside from the rabbinic prohibition of handling the seed (because it's ...


2

this is a famous dispute between the Minchas Chinuch and the Rashash in Shabbos (73a)- the Minchas Chinuch says that if one removed the seed before the zriah he is still liable, however the rashash says one is not liable, the rashash compares to the din of baking, that if one stopped the baking before it was finsihed one is not liable for bishul, since the ...


1

If he is able to obtain the ramen of noodles himself it would be called "mesayeh derabanan" ie. a rabbinic prohibition of enabling a sin (lifnei iveir). However, if he cannot procure it himself it would then be prohibited biblically. In terms of if he is ill, if he life threateningly ill, you yourself could make the food, However, if it is non life ...



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