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All three books (Iyov Mishlei and Tehillim) are written in a complex poetic style. The separate trop represents the shift from prose to poetry and may have been sung in a more songful manner than the regular prose trop. A proof to this distinction lies in Iyov, whose first, second and final chapters are written in prose and have regular trop. EDIT: The ...


7

The reason is that Job was not dictated to Moses by Hashem for the purpose of being put into the Torah. The words of the Torah were specifically for the history, halachos, and hashkafa of Bnei Yisrael. Thus Moshe wrote it at the lower level of nevua set up for Kesuvim. The Chumash is like the Neviim in that they were given as a message by Hashem to the Navi ...


6

Also, there's a widespread Sephardic custom to read the Book of Iyov publicly on Tisha BeAv. I don't know whether they use the trop, but I would assume that they do, like any other public reading.


5

I believe the Syrian community has a tradition of reciting the Sifrei Emet with trope.


5

They had a tune. The Yemenites still have a tradition for how to sing Tehillim. In Eretz Yisrael you can pass by Yemenite Batei Kinasiyoth ("th" intentional) and still hear the children singing Tehillim with the trop.


5

Indeed, in a number of places here in Israel, Tehillim are read publicly on a daily basis from Tehillim scrolls written on parchment. According to many authorities, there is also a special bracha that is to be recited prior to reading material from Ketuvim out of a parchment scroll: ברוך אתה ה' א-להינו מלך העולם אשר קדשנו במצותיו וציונו לקרוא בכתבי הקודש ...


5

Many sephardim still have a tradition as to the melody of the ta'amei emet. You can buy recordings of the Moroccan tradition from http://www.tht.co.il/default.asp. If you've visited sepharadi synagogues before, you may recognize the melody -- we use it for Kabbalat Shabbat. As for the question of why they have ta'amim: the books of the Tanach need some sort ...


4

There are many different opinions regarding when Iyov existed, if at all. Many are mentioned in the Talmud you cited in your question. The Talmud (Sotah 11A) says that Iyov was one of Pharaoh's advisers along with Yisro and Bilaam. See the details translated here. They advised Pharaoh at the beginning of the Israelite's slavery. The Talmud (Sotah 35A) ...


3

The Books of Obadiah, Nahum, and Jonah contain prophecies that are predominately addressing Gentiles. The Talmud does not mention them as prophets of the Gentiles though, only Beor, Bilaam, Job, and his 4 companions. So perhaps the Talmud is referring to the general trend of their prophecy, most of which remained unwritten (Megillah 14b), not specifically ...


3

See the discussion on the name elohim. The commentaries on Genesis discuss what was going on there; the simplest explanation is "the sons of the authorities", or "the sons of the powerful" or "the sons of judges" went and took [advantage of] any woman they wanted.


2

According to this translation (based on Rashi's commentary) in the first instance it means the children of the powerful (sons of the nobles). http://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/8171/showrashi/true According to the same site, the Iyov (Job) references are to angels.


2

The GRA yeshiva in Lakewood and Israel still teach the Kids with the TRUP for Thillim.


2

The Gemara actually records several opinions as to who wrote Job, and when (or whether) he lived. Therefore, it isn't part of Torah because it isn't clear if it was written by Moses. Bava Bathra 15 You say that Moses wrote... Job. This supports the opinion of R. Joshua b. Levi b. Lahma who said that Job was contemporary with Moses... A certain ...


1

Coming from the word "Rasha" meaning "bad or "evil". "Ersha" is the future tense of "rasha", so Iyov is saying: "It is in your knowledge (you know) that I will not do evil (i.e. - become evil or wicked)..." I'd like to know how Chabad's translation of "become condemned" fits in, here. That seems to imply a "passive" verb, and I don't see this definition ...


1

Abarbanel comments on the Rambam's Moreh Nevuchim (2:45) that the Rambam has to say that Tehillim was not written in actual prophecy, and that David was not a prophet. The reason for the redundancy, explains the Abarbanel, is that David could have still been a prophet (had reached the requisite level and have been shown visions of prophecy), but while ...


1

Basically there are multiple valid opinions. Various midrashim put him roughly around the same period as Moshe (though Sforno reads that "Utz", a nephew of Avraham's, is in fact "the man from the land of Utz" i.e. Iyov). There's another opinion that the story is in fact fiction, "Iyov never existed and never was created."



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