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Your questions address both the idea of omitting as well as including Kaddish. I am providing a partial answer that addresses why Kaddish should be said and how this is related to the concept of Geulah Arichta, as you mentioned. From this Beurei Hatefilah article - bottom of p. 4 citing Raav"n (Rav Eliezer ben Natan, aka Tzafnat Pane'ach) on Brachot siman ...


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See the Kitzur Shulchan Aruch in סימן ע - דיני תפלת מעריב, where he teaches us: סעיף ג': מִי שֶׁבָּא לְבֵית הַכְּנֶסֶת לִתְפִלַּת עַרְבִית וּמָצָא שֶׁהַצִּבּוּר עוֹמְדִין לְהִתְפַּלֵּל שְׁמֹנֶה עֶשְׂרֵה, אֲפִלּוּ עֲדַיִן אֵינוֹ לַיְלָה, אֶלָּא מִפְּלַג הַמִּנְחָה וּלְמַעְלָה, מִתְפַּלֵּל עִמָּהֶם שְׁמֹנֶה עֶשְׂרֵה, וְאַחַר כָּךְ כְּשֶׁיִּהְיֶה לַיְלָה ...


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First, some background information: This question is explicit in the halakhah and only due to a personal minhagh of the Rosh brought down by the Tur (OH 166 - where he re-interprets the gemara to fit this personal custom of the Rosh - see Rabbenu Yoel there) has there been any confusion on the issue. Rambam, Rashi, and the Ba`alei Tosafoth all agree that ...



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