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אֲנִי is the basic word "I". It is just about always followed by an adjective or noun. It is used the vast majority of times both in Tanakh and later writings. אָנֹכִי is a more nuanced version of אֲנִי. It also means "I", but it's a more robust, stronger version. It's main use is for emphasis, a bold I as it were. Let me give an example. "Ani Hashem" is ...


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After lots of searching, I finally found a paper on this topic: "The Two Forms of First Person Singular Pronoun in Biblical Hebrew: Redundancy or Expressive Contrast?" by E. J. Revell, Journal of Semitic Studies 40 (1995), pp. 199–207. The crux of Revell's argument is that "אני is typically used by status-marked human speakers, אנכי by others." He notes ...


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I would recommend Open Siddur. They have directions how to create your own siddur, as well as some already created siddurim, with full attribution info (allowing one to contact the original authors). E.g. There is a Nusach Ashkenaz siddur "Tefiloh Sefas Yisroel", dedicated to the memory of the Bad Homburg Jewish community, with the author's name and a ...


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Proper pronunciation and proper distinguishing of letters and vowels is halakha. How must one enunciate? He must be careful not to pronounce [a letter with] a strong dagesh as if there were no dagesh, or [a letter with] no dagesh as if there were one. Nor should one pronounce the silent sheva or silence the pronounced sheva. Hil. Kriath Shema' 2:9 and ...


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Reb Moshe writes in Igros Moshe(YD 3:91) that he emphatically refused to give permission to translate his Teshuvos (either in full or a summery) into English, because It may not be translated properly It may cause people to make mistakes One shouldn't give Teshuvos to ignoramuses as they may make errors in Halachic judgement (comparing cases which are not ...


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Your connection is exactly what the Malbim discusses, I copied the relevant part here (partial emphasis by me): וישמע יתרו. בא להציע מה הניע את לב יתרו לצאת ממדין אל המדבר ולהביא את בניו אתו, שהלא מנמוסי הכבוד היה ראוי שמשה ישחר פני חותנו והוא ישלח אחר אשתו, כמ"ש דרכו של איש לחזר אחר אשה לא בהפך שנקבה תסובב גבר, זאת שנית הלא משה שלח את אשתו בגט פטורין, ...


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It appears a lot in mishnayoss. E.G. Bava Kama (7,5) הַנּוֹחֵר, וְהַמְעַקֵּר, מְשַׁלֵּם תַּשְׁלוּמֵי כֶפֶל וְאֵינוֹ מְשַׁלֵּם תַּשְׁלוּמֵי אַרְבָּעָה וַחֲמִשָּׁה The noher ... do not be considered as shohet, and so do not pay X4 or X5 The Bartenura wrote: הַנּוֹחֵר. קוֹרְעוֹ מִנְּחִירָיו עַד לִבּוֹ He tore from the nostrils to the heart This also appears ...


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I think the sense contextually is that he tears it from its nostrils to its chest (see Rashi Chullin 17a s.v. v'hanocher [hattip @wfb]) or stabs it (see e.g. Krithuth 5:1) or strangles it in such a manner that it is clearly not a kosher shechita. See e.g. this Wiktionary entry. See also Chullin 17a.


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The first word is the infinitive and the second word is the future (second-person plural) of the same verb, to listen/hear.


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I think you may be confused regarding the term "maftir" and how it works. "Maftir" refers to the "additional" aliyah that occurs after the other 7 required aliyot on Shabbat. There is always a maftir, so there is no additional maftir. It is merely that one maftir is substituted in place of the standard weekly maftir. Some people call the Haftarah "maftir". ...


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Shadal quotes ibn Ezra's explanation that this is a pausal form. This is the case even though the word is not the last in the verse: because the last word, 'הֵֽם', is a very short word, it somehow doesn't count as a separation between יִשְׁפּוּט֥וּ and the end of the verse. This case also differs from regular pausal usage in that the long vowel that is put ...


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It's the first word of Genesis 2:1. Genesis 2:1–3 is recited a few times a week in the liturgy, perhaps most notably toward the end of the evening synagogue services on Friday nights: many congregations recite the passage aloud and in unison on that occasion. If you saw a reference to "Va'yechulu", it likely meant that passage and may well have meant ...


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R. Avraham b. haRambam writes in the beginnining of Va'Eirah (7:8): לא ידעתי [מה החילוק] בין ויאמר לוידבר ולמה אמר פעם ויאמר ופעם וידבר ואם רק הוא מכם רק "I do not know what's the difference between VaYomer and VaYedaber, and why sometimes the Torah uses one, and sometimes the other, and if it seems meaningless, it's your shortcoming."


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The Hebrew language is considered the holy tongue, but not because it is ascetically pleasing from a grammarian's view point. It is holy because holy people use it to convey holy ideas, and it is ill suited (in its original incarnation) for speaking on profane matters. The Rambam writes: I have also a reason and cause for calling our language the holy ...


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Many of your point are only relevant to Modern Hebrew, which is a distinct language from Biblical Hebrew, only the latter being a holy language. In fact, many orthodox Jews distance themselves from Modern Hebrew (to the point of prohibiting its use in their synagogues) because of what is deemed to be its inherent un-holiness. Nevertheless, let me address ...


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According to milon.co.il, the word דגה means כלל הדגים which I would translate as the collective term "all fish" kind of like how the word "humanity" means "all humans". So, for example וְהַדָּגָה אֲשֶׁר-בַּיְאֹר תָּמוּת means "the entirety of fish-hood in the river will die." An example of another pair of words in Hebrew which exhibit a similar ...


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The word "yada" is clearly defined in context. In fact, the 3rd instance is treated in 3 different ways by different meforshim (commentators) as follows: the Ibn Ezra claims that is "a euphemism for laying down" with no proof. Is the context. The people of Sodom wanted to have homosexual relations. Similarly, Targum Yonasan translates "v'nei'd'ah osam" as ...



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