New answers tagged grammar-dikduk
9
From Soncino's intro to Seder Moed:
"It might be observed that the designation 'Mo'ed' is in the singular, as distinct from the plural forms used to designate the other Orders, e.g., Nashim, Nezikin, etc. It has been suggested that the singular is here specially used to avoid the confusion that might arise through the employment of the plural Seder Mo'adim ...
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I remember seeing an answer which explains that the way the calander is set that will determine all the Yom tovim and it is like a chain not separate ,each are followed by the next.
Another answer similar to another given here is that shabbas is the ultimate moed and we give shabbas the name of moed.
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HaMaor Volume 46 Number 3 Page 26 says that since all the Yomim Tovim are going to be nullified besides Purim when Moshiach comes therefore it is called Moed in singular form as the only Mesechta remaining will be Megila.
Otzar Kol Minhagei Yishurin Siman 7 * note says that since the names of the Shisha Sidrei Mishna are based on the Pasuk והיה אמונת עתיך ...
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In Medieval Rabbinic literature nouns with suffixes were generally seen as grammatically male, hence the זכותו יגן instead of זכותו תגן.
See http://he.wikipedia.org/wiki/%D7%9E%D7%95%D7%95%D7%AA#cite_note-6
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Could it be that chassidim - who are the ones who generally use this expression - are largely not knowledgable in or interested in Hebrew grammar?
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According to this page at Chadrei Charedim, the correct pronunciation (as demanded by the strictures of Hebrew grammar) is with a patach. Indeed, this is true: consider the form of similar phrases that appear throughout Tanakh:
Genesis 7:1 - בַדור הַזה (bador hazeh);
Exodus 5:23 - לָעם הַזה (la'am hazeh);
Leviticus 23:27 - לַחדש הַשביעי הַזה (lachodesh ...
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I have heard before (no source at this moment though) that, Kaballistically, we are talking to the "Shechina" - G-d's presence - which is feminine. Considering the fact that Sefaradim generally tilt towards Kaballah more, especially with regards to prayers, I would assume this is a possible reason
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The root of the word is צלי, which means "to turn" or "incline", and which has the sense of "pray" in many passages. For the former, see the Targum on Psalm 102:12 (where it corresponds to the Hebrew word of root נטה), and for the latter see Targum Onkelos on Genesis 12:8 (where it corresponds to the Hebrew word of root קרא). When it means "pray", it is ...
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The entire prayer, except for the last line, is in Aramaic.
צלי, צלא, or צלו are different constructs of the word meaning "pray". צלותהון means "their prayers".
As for the root, I believe it is likely correct that it is צלא, though a part of me wants to go digging in my old Aramaic text books to rule out the possibility that it is צלי.
I have never heard ...
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צְלוֹתְהוֹן means praying in Aramic. Many other words of Kadish are also Aramic.
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