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4

Yes. Lost property belongs to the heirs. The Shulchan Aruch - Choshen Mishpat - סימן רס - המוצא דבר שמוכח שהנח שם - mentions by the way that lost property belongs to the heirs. אוֹ שֶׁהָיָה יוֹרֵשׁ שֶׁאָנוּ טוֹעֲנִין לוֹ, שֶׁמָּא שֶׁל אָבִיו הָיָה (Normally, one has to claim that a found item originally belonged to one. For example, an item is found ...


4

The standard arrangements found in those codes assumed the standard cases back then, in which the husband was the primary (and usually) sole breadwinner. Any rights he had to her property -- and those were limited in ways your question is glossing over -- were only because first and foremost he supported her. The Talmud makes it abundantly clear that if she ...


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By the standard laws of the Torah, a daughter does not inherit the parents where there are male, though unmarried daughters may be supported from the estate. There are two methodologies that may be used to ensure that female children have an "inheritance" of sorts. The first is simple - one who is not yet dead, even if they are terminally ill and/or dying,...


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Try http://jewishhistory.huji.ac.il/links/maps.htm#biblical Links to Many Maps... Probobly a Martin Gilbert map could be your best bet. Hope this helps..


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Rashbam on the Pasuk writes: ומולדתך - בניך או בני בניך... על שם אחיהם יקראו ולא יהיו שבטים כי אם בתי אבות, כי כל שבעים נפש שהיו בשעת ביאת יעקב בין בנים בין בני בנים היו בתי אבות ולהם נתחלקה הארץ... וכתיב לבסוף: לאלה תחלק הארץ בנחלה וגו' לשמות מטות אבותם ינחלו. וכן בני בניו של יוסף שנולדו אחרי כן יקראו על שם אחיהם בנחלתם והיו בתי אבות, כדכתיב בפרשת פנחס. ...


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The sources that I have seen would consider the inheritance as income. For example, someone gives a gift from money that had paid ma'aser on it. This is still considered complete income, because you have not paid any money for it. However, see below that you do not need to pay the ma'aser until you actually liquidate (sell) the property and obtain cash for ...



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