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11

The woman can ask but the torah specifies that the man must write (order the writing of) the divorce document and deliver it to her. There are cases in which the court can order the man to write the get, but he must be the one to write it (or order it written) and it must be of his own free will. This is similar to the rules of getting married in which the ...


5

The Rambam's language strongly implies that the answer to your question is no. He writes that the reason why we say that it is merely the case that "his inclination is forcing him" to do evil is because he wants to remain Jewish and his general overarching will is to do the right thing: מֵאַחַר שֶׁהוּא רוֹצֶה לִהְיוֹת מִיִּשְׂרָאֵל וְרוֹצֶה הוּא ...


5

It is very difficult to find accurate statistics on divorce, and differences between countries are so great that any answer can only be useful from a specific countries' perspective. Finding prevalence statistics specifically focused on shidduchim is even harder. On of the problem of using divorce statistics is that part of the high reported rates of divorce ...


4

Your question uses some ambiguous language. You asked "Why can't a woman decide by herself to divorce?" The answer to your question depends on what you mean by "can't." On a simple level, the Torah lays out the procedure for divorce. Part of that procedure is the husband writing a bill of divorce (called a get) and giving it to the wife. When we understand ...


4

Rav Menashe Klein brings different opinions here (in קונטרסים גיטין on סימן קכ"א). He quotes the Shut Maharik 63:3 who says that this reason of the Rambam does not apply to someone who converted away from Judaism, however here he says the Rambam agrees that the Rabbis simply invalidated the Kiddushin because of how much they wanted to avoid an Aguna - so in ...


3

See Ramma in Even HaEzer 154 Siff 1 . He discusses a man who is Ro'eh Zonos, which may mean he visits prostitutes or just has random affairs, and his wife complains about it. He says witnesses of him cavorting like this (not just young nonjews stating this) is grounds for forcing (either literally or through religious convincing, see Siff 21) him to give a ...


3

Is there a need to appear before the beit din? If so, it would seem to make sense to find a beit din locally to avoid travel expenses. The best way is for both spouses to appear before a beit din. (If necessary, or the couple can't stand to be in the same room, then the husband can appear before one beit din and arrange for a proxy to deliver the Get to ...


2

If an nonOrthodox "get" is obtained, the divorce is probably invalid and the people (if they were married to begin with) are probably still married. This would be because the "witnesses" who signed the get are probably not valid and the "bait din" that had the get written probably do not know the technicalities of a get. Given that a valid bait din is used, ...


2

Maybe the simple reason is that for the husband to have stability (and a man will take care of somthing/someone that is his, that can not be taken away much better then somthing that can leave) Marrige is not what it seems now (a new idea maybe less then 100 years) to the western world In short, the answer is because this is what G-d Almighty told us. ...


2

The Mishnah in Gittin 81a (Art Scroll 81a3) says that if a man divorced his wife and they were secluded together, then Bais Shammai says that he does not have to give her another get. Bais Hillel says that he must give her another get. Art Scroll page 81a3 note 22 states that Bais Hillel is concerned that they cohabited together with the intent of ...


2

See Yebamot 63b, see Mishna Ketubot 7, 6 תכא is table, it is a modest (tsniut) figurative image related to conjugal life. See Nedarim 20b for the use of the word "table" (A woman once came before Rabbi and said, 'Rabbi! I set a table before my husband,) See Rabi Yehuda Bar Natan ‎ מקשטא ליה פומא‏ ‎=‏ wait until a meal to offend ‎ מהדרא ...


2

Shulchan aruch even ezer 119.3 one should not divorce his first wife unless he found her cheating. hagah: Aside from this, the rabbis said: "if someone divorces his first wife, the alter cries tears upon him". This is specifically talking in their days (time of the talmud), when they frequently divorced a woman even against her will (this is when the ...


1

While I cannot speak to the sources (I am not the author, who oddly enough includes sources elsewhere), many of the cases in which a woman forfeits her right to the kesubah are delineated by Chazal. If the wife commits adultery, spitefully withholds relations, or makes her husband commit aveiros (such as feeding him non-kosher or having him bo'el niddah by ...


1

A woman can't ask for a divorce because the stipulations in the Torah, and the halacha do not grant her the power to ask for a divorce. For more details on that, read everyone else's answers. However, women were given the power to initiate divorce during the time of the Geonim. During the time of the Geonim, women were granted the power to initiate divorce ...


1

The Reform movement generally doesn't require Gittin. Conservative practices will vary. An Orthodox Get will be accepted by all denominations. And if either spouse later chooses to affiliate with some other movement, it will be accepted there too. I know a Reform rabbi who got divorced; he arranged for an Orthodox Get for his wife. It kept everyone's ...


1

Rav Moshe Feinstein, z"l, maintained that marriages performed by the new, modern-era Jewish movements (that are based on a rejection of traditional halacha, e.g. Conservative, Reform, Reconstructionist; henceforth: neoJewish) are completely invalid in the eyes of halacha. He even went so far as to suggest that these marriages were less valid than secular ...


1

Short answer: No, the wife of an old fellow cannot demand a divorce. Sources and/or details You are only quoting half the requirements - occupation. Health also plays a role. See Shulchan Aruch, Even HaEzer סימן עו - חיוב עונה for the full details. א: עוֹנָתָהּ כֵּיצַד, כָּל אִישׁ חַיָּב בְּעוֹנָה כְּפִי כֹּחוֹ וּכְפִי מְלַאכְתּוֹ. וְהַטַּיָּלִים, ...


1

It's only a precautionary marriage which is unlikely to actually continue and, in the unlikely event it did continue but didn't work out, they could always get a divorce. They also likely had a very different cultural expectation from marriage back then that didn't require the same level of agonizing. Finally, it sounds a lot like the gemara a few dapim ...



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