If someone didn't hear words (or perhaps even an entire verse) from Parshas Zachor or Parshas Parah, are they yotzee b'dieved? I'm specifically asking in this case since Parshas Zachor is d'oraisa and ...
What is the underlying argument between the two pronunciations and what are the multiple ways to deal with the problem?
Can a Sefardi be Yotzeh Zachor with an Ashkenazi Laining and vice Versa?
Suppose a Shul makes a mistake one week, forgetting there are 2 Adars that year, and the Baal Korei reads Parshas Shekalim. Would they read Parshas Shekalim again before Rosh Chodesh Adar Sheni?