Tagged Questions
2
votes
1answer
42 views
Singular and plural language in Vaikra 10:1
In parashat shemini, chapter 10, verse 1 it is written:
וַיִּקְחוּ בְנֵי אַהֲרֹן נָדָב וַאֲבִיהוּא אִישׁ מַחְתָּתוֹ וַיִּתְּנוּ בָהֵן אֵשׁ וַיָּשִׂימוּ עָלֶיהָ קְטֹרֶת וַיַּקְרִיבוּ לִפְנֵי ...
5
votes
1answer
52 views
“Vashti the queen” vs. “Queen Vashti”
Is there a peshat difference between the usual wording,
“ושתי המלכה”
Vashti the queen
(or “אסתר המלכה” Esther the queen),
and the wording used twice in Chapter 1 (verses 12 and 15),
“המלכה ושתי”
the ...
-1
votes
4answers
132 views
Return *his* dress?
After the command to return a lost ox, we find: "You should do likewise for his dress (לשמלתו)."
However, two pesukim later, we see וְלֹא-יִלְבַּשׁ גֶּבֶר שִׂמְלַת אִשָּׁה (and a man shouldn't wear ...
3
votes
2answers
92 views
Clothing and shame, etymologically speaking
I have been unable to find an etymological connection between the root for shame בשש (especially as it turns into the forms of בושה בושת) and the word for "clothe" לבש. Shame was introduced in ...
6
votes
2answers
254 views
Why can't Ploni Almoni be a real name, in Ruth?
The verse states (Ruth 4:1):
וּבֹעַז עָלָה הַשַּׁעַר, וַיֵּשֶׁב שָׁם, וְהִנֵּה הַגֹּאֵל עֹבֵר אֲשֶׁר דִּבֶּר-בֹּעַז, וַיֹּאמֶר סוּרָה שְׁבָה-פֹּה פְּלֹנִי אַלְמֹנִי; וַיָּסַר, וַיֵּשֵׁב
Now Boaz ...
4
votes
0answers
53 views
How did the Parshiyot get their names [duplicate]
and what are the names' significance?
Thanks
Naomi
Duplicate of:
Where are the rules for naming parshiyot explained?
2
votes
2answers
89 views
Goy Versus Leum
The Posuk Says (Gen. 25,23):
שְׁנֵי [גיים] גוֹיִם בְּבִטְנֵךְ וּשְׁנֵי לְאֻמִּים מִמֵּעַיִךְ יִפָּרֵדוּ
Translated as: Two nations are in your womb, and two kingdoms will separate from your ...
7
votes
4answers
416 views
Does “ki” have four meanings or one?
There is a well-known statement by Resh Lakish in Gitin (90) that
כי" משמש בד' לשונות: אי, דלמא, אלא, דהא"
"ki" expresses four meanings...
There has been discussion over the ages as to what ...
7
votes
2answers
84 views
Why are several Biblical characters called “man of the Lord” (Ish HaElokim), but no one in the Bible is ever “man of God” (Ish Hashem)?
Ramban makes this observation (Deut. 33:1), and says "anyone with a good intellect" can figure out the reason. Okay I'm stumped ... help me out here please?
10
votes
3answers
154 views
In the Bible, why did robbers bother tunneling into houses to rob them?
Exodus 22:1 speaks about the robber who was found "tunnelling in" to someone's house (vis-a-vis self-defense). Is that just a figure of speech, or did they actually go to that much trouble? (What ...
