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Should one say Baruch HaShem L'Olam when davening without a minyan? What if one is davening not in a synagogue but in a home? What if one is davening alone?

Practically speaking, the prayer was instituted for the sake of those coming to synagogue - either "in order to shorten the service... permitting Shmone Esre to be recited safely at home" or "to allow latecomers time to catch up" (Artscroll nusach Sefard). It would seem that logically one davening at home is therefore not obligated to say it. However, my siddur (Tefila Yeshara nusach Sefard) is certainly clear on what is not said by a yachid and it says nothing of the sort here. Furthermore, the Baal Shem Tov was very particular to always say it, and it is known that he would sometimes daven without a minyan.

I recall learning an opinion that one davening at home should not say the final blessing, but perhaps this reflects the opposition some authorities have to the passage altogether. All of this, of course, assumes one holds that it should be said even with a minyan, as some authorities (notably the Baal HaTanya) rule that it represents an unnecessary interruption between the Shema and the Shmone Esre.

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Whatever you makes you suspect the answer might be "no" (unlike the rest of the prayers) would be reasonable to include, I think. –  msh210 Sep 5 '11 at 4:11
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@msh210 I think in expanding on my question I may have hit upon the answer ("yes, because it doesn't explicitly say not to") but I'd still welcome others' input. –  yoel Sep 5 '11 at 5:10
    
FWIW, nobody in Israel says this, in public or private prayer. –  user1095 Mar 23 '12 at 12:51

2 Answers 2

up vote 4 down vote accepted

The Tzlach in Brachos 5 says that Boruch Hashem L'Olam was made for a Yochid also. However the Maaseh Rav 67 says that a Yochid should not say it.

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IIRC, the GR"A (Ma'aseh Rav) was never noheig to say this tefillah. Since Ashkenazim in E"Y primarily follow the GR"A, that is why it is generally not said in Israel. Sefaradim do not even say this. If you do hatarat nedarim, then you probably wouldn't even have to worry about this at all, and could skip it always. This makes sense, although I am certainly not qualified to pasken. –  Adam Mosheh Dec 2 '11 at 6:34
    
Are you saying the Gra only didn't say it when he davened without a tzibbur? –  Double AA Nov 18 '12 at 6:23

To add to the opinions already brought:

From the Taz (O"C 236:2) it sounds like it is said even when one is not praying it with the tzibbur. He says:

ועל פי זה נ"ל מי שבא לב"ה אחר שהתחילו הצבור להתפלל יתפלל ביחידות מנחה וקורא ק"ש וברכותיה עד שומר עמו ישראל לעד והצבור מתחילין להתפלל ערבית יוכל תכף להתפלל עמהם ופסוקים דברוך ה' לעולם אמן יראו עינינו יאמר אח"כ דכיון דגדולים נהגו שלא לאמרם כלל יכול בזה לסמוך עליהם ולדלגם כדי להתפלל עם הצבור ולומר אותה אחר כך כנ"ל פשוט:‏

He says that if you have the option to either skip this tefila and start amida with the tzibbur or say this tefila it its place and delay your amida, you should skip this tefila, start amida with the kehal, and say it afterwards. Its sounds to me from here that one would have an obligation to say it even if he is not saying it together with the tzibbur.

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