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I notice that when referring to God in the second person in a possessive form, Sefardim often use the female form where Ashkenazim use the male form.

For example, where Ashkenazim say in kedusha, "כַּכָּתוּב עַל יַד נְבִיאֶךָ", Sefardim say "וְכֵן כָּתוּב עַל יַד נְבִיאָךְ". Notice the difference in the last word.

Another example: In birchas hamazon Ashkenazim say "רַחֶם נָא יי אֱלהֵינוּ עַל יִשְׂרָאֵל עַמֶּךָ. וְעַל יְרוּשָׁלַיִם עִירֶךָ. וְעַל צִיּוֹן מִשְׁכַּן כְּבוֹדֶךָ", while Sefardim say "רַחֵם יי אֱלֹהֵינוּ עָלֵינוּ וְעַל יִשְׂרָאֵל עַמָּךְ. וְעַל יְרוּשָׁלַיִם עִירָךְ. וְעַל הַר צִיּוֹן מִשְׁכַּן כְּבוֹדָךְ" Again, notice the "ךְ" ending instead of the "ךָ".

Although, there are those instances where even Ashkenazim use the female form. (e.g. מודִים אֲנַחְנוּ לָךְ.) But in my limited study of Tanach, I seem to recall God as always being referred to in the male form.

What is the reason for this difference between Ashkenazic and Sefardic liturgy, and its origin?

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2 Answers

The -ach-final form is not just a feminine form (even in Biblical but also in later Hebrew) but also:

  • a Biblical-Hebrew pausal masculine form. (E.g., 2 Sh'muel 7:9 has וָאֶהְיֶה עִמְּךָ whereas Sh'mos 3:12 has כִּי אֶהְיֶה עִמָּךְ.) This explanation seems unlikely to me for things like nakdishach (at the start of k'dusha).
  • a rabbinic-Hebrew[1] masculine form. (I have no source for this at the moment.)

I assume, but do not know, that the use of -ach in k'dusha and the like is in its latter capacity, as rabbinic Hebrew.

That said, I do not know why the Sephardic text would use the one form and the Ashkenazic text the other.

And if the explanation is that it's pausal (which, again, I doubt), then it's curious to me that S'faradim should use the pausal form and Ashk'nazim not, whereas the reverse is true for bore p'ri hagafen/hegefen.

[1] I.e., l'shon Chazal. I don't know what scholars call this. It's later than Biblical Hebrew.

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Re: [1] "Rabbinic Hebrew" and "Late Biblical Hebrew" are both acceptable "academic" designations. – WAF Aug 28 '11 at 21:24
@WAF Yes, but "Rabbinic Hebrew" also has certain definitions. I'll try to find out more specifics. – Seth J Aug 29 '11 at 14:01
Yedid Nefesh is an example of later Rabbinic -ach meaning male. – Charles Koppelman Apr 29 at 19:33
@CharlesKoppelman, depends on the nusach. – msh210 Apr 29 at 19:34
@msh210 The original manuscript has it as such (though admittedly written by a Sephardi). In light of this, some nusach Ashkenaz communities are shifting to the "correct" version – Charles Koppelman Apr 29 at 19:53

I have heard before (no source at this moment though) that, Kaballistically, we are talking to the "Shechina" - G-d's presence - which is feminine. Considering the fact that Sefaradim generally tilt towards Kaballah more, especially with regards to prayers, I would assume this is a possible reason

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