Tell me more ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.
up vote 1 down vote favorite

The term "sons of G-d" בני האלהים is found 3 times in the Hebrew Bible, once in Genesis (6:2), and twice in Job (1:6 and 2:1). What does it mean? Does it have the same meaning in both instances? What is it referring to? What are the different beliefs held about what this means? The Septuagint translates this both times as "sons of G-d". It's first used in Genesis 6 when the "sons of G-d" came and had relations with women. Then it's used again in the book of Job when all of the "sons of G-d" cheered at the creation of the earth in Genesis (Obviously means Angels here, correct? -or?). It's the same word used in both instances, and translated the same in the Septuagint in both instances. I just wanna learn..

share|improve this question
3  
Chapter/Verse citations would make it easier for people to contribute to this discussion. – Isaac Moses Jul 13 '11 at 14:11
4  
"I just wanna learn.." is unnecessary, unless you are trying to cover up missionizing. The answer is that no, it does not mean that God sleeps with women and has sons. – josh waxman Jul 14 '11 at 19:19

3 Answers

up vote 2 down vote

See the discussion on the name elohim. The commentaries on Genesis discuss what was going on there; the simplest explanation is "the sons of the authorities", or "the sons of the powerful" or "the sons of judges" went and took [advantage of] any woman they wanted.

share|improve this answer
up vote 2 down vote

According to this translation (based on Rashi's commentary) in the first instance it means the children of the powerful (sons of the nobles). http://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/8171/showrashi/true

According to the same site, the Iyov (Job) references are to angels.

share|improve this answer
up vote -3 down vote

"Beni-Elohim" has no clear meaning. Depending on what theology you have, or what theology you believe ancient Israel to have, it can mean very different things. The literal meaning though is not "sons of G-d", but rather "Children of Powers"

share|improve this answer
Is it "Bene Elohim"? Doing a google search for "Beni-Elohim" shows results with how it's first spelled in this comment. Also, doesn't the septuagint translate it as "Sons of G-d"? Nearly every Google search comes up as people saying it's translated "Sons of G-d". Also, what do you believe it to mean? Or, what are the different beliefs about what this means? – android.nick Jul 13 '11 at 8:41
It depends on the verse and context its used in. The most popular spot is in the sentence "bnei elohim ... banot adam" So sons of god vs daughters of man makes a nice contrast. In Job, and Pslams where the term comes up more often, it means either angels, or people. – avi Jul 13 '11 at 8:54
"Ha'E-lohim" refers to God in most instances in Tana"ch. Why would it not here? – WAF Jul 13 '11 at 11:06
what do you mean by "ha'E-lohim"? There is no extra "hey" here. Depending on your theology, it would or wouldn't refer to G-d here. One would have to know the purpose of this section of the chumash before they could say definitively. I've heard many dvar torahs on this section which refer to angels, or societies, or leadership depending on the context and drush. Each one translates the phrase differently for their purpose. – avi Jul 13 '11 at 12:34
1  
To name a couple, it appears by the akeda, destruction of S'dom, and all over Koheles. It is understood as being a more extreme version of the name Elokim, which pertains to "cold hard" justice. It therefore appears in places in which Hashem's justice is as if even further removed from the empathetic concerns of the people involved. [citation needed] – WAF Jul 14 '11 at 19:42
show 3 more comments

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.