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The Torah describes in our parshah how, if a person is poor and has to sell his ancestral real estate, "his goel, who is closely related to him, should come and redeem his brother's sale" (Lev. 25:25).

When that happens, who actually takes possession? Does the goel hold on to it until the next Yovel year, or does it immediately revert to the original seller?

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up vote 6 down vote accepted

Rashi (w/o surce) in B'har 25:13 says that the redeemer returns it to the original owner at Yovel.

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Looks like Rashi got this from Sifra to this verse. – Alex May 15 '11 at 5:24

Abarbanel, though not a halachic source, mentions that if the seller does not have the means to redeem his property, a wealthier relative of his (his goel), should buy it back from the buyer "to return it to the seller," implying that ownership immediately reverts to the original seller.

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