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Mishna B'rura 489:3 says women do not say a b'racha on s'firas haomer; Aruch Hashulchan 489:4 says they do. What is the practice of various Ashk'nazi communities (for example, chassidic (various sects), "yeshivish" (various yeshivos), German, Dutch, and so on)?

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Note the Mishna Berura's reasons apply equally to many men nowadays as well as not applying to certain women. I don't know that he ever intended it to be such a formal rule as to exclude exceptions. – Double AA♦ Apr 9 at 3:19
@DoubleAA "apply equally to many men nowadays": except that men have a chiyuv to count so arguably would say a b'racha anyway. (But I agree with your "not applying to certain women" and your "I don't know that he ever intended it to be such a formal rule as to exclude exceptions".) – msh210♦ Apr 14 at 3:56
why does an obligation make the reason not apply? Consider a man who hasn't made all 49 brachot in 25 years and will try this year no more than he always does. Oh, and he doesn't speak any Hebrew. – Double AA♦ Apr 14 at 3:59
Maybe similar to the comments on this question: judaism.stackexchange.com/a/28746. Ping @DoubleAA. – msh210♦ May 14 at 4:43

1 Answer

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In Norvadahk the woman say with a Bracha.

By Chasidim that come from Sanz (Klausanberg, Bobov) the woman do not say or say without a Bracha.

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"In Norvadahk the woman say with a Bracha" - That would explain the Aruch Hashulchan's p'sak, right? – WAF Apr 24 '11 at 14:15

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