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What would the status of a country dictated by a Jewish monarch be if that country were not [in] Eretz Yisra'el?

Would people need to separate t'rumos and ma'asros there?

(Sorry for the brevity, but this question is inspired by Tosafos in Kidushin 36b, s.v. "kol".)

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2 Answers 2

It depends what you mean by a country dictated by a Jewish monarch.

Today, the only place you need to separate trumos and maasros is in Israel proper and the Syria that David Hamelech conquered during his reign. See Rambam.

Even if a country today were ruled by a Jewish monarch, that would affect nothing halachically. The only way to require trumos and maasros in a land not in Eretz Yisrael, as specified by the Rambam, is for it to be conquered by a legitimate Jewish king or Navi [neither of which exist today] with the consent of the Jewish nation.

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I'm not sure it's so simple. Tosafos there cites a Yerushalmi which says that formerly they used to separate terumah and maaser in "the Golah," which usually means Babylonia (Iraq) - well outside halachic Syria. –  Alex Mar 1 '11 at 22:55
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Does the Tosafos linked in the question agree with the Ramba"m? –  WAF Mar 1 '11 at 23:35
    
Don't know, but then again, the Rambam can't argue with a Yerushalmi (unless there is a Bavli to the contrary). –  Alex Mar 2 '11 at 14:54
up vote 1 down vote accepted

I stumbled upon part of an answer in the form of a nafka mina found in Mishne Torah - Hilchos M'lachim 5:8. Ramba"m says that a Jewish king presiding over Egypt would render it permissible to live there.

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Under what authority would a Jewish king preside over Egypt? Ruling from Eretz Yisrael? Or anti-Halachically living in Egypt and ascending to the monarchy (and then, how?)? –  Seth J Nov 2 '11 at 13:50
    
Yes, presumably conquest/expansion. @SethJ –  WAF Nov 3 '11 at 11:36
    
So a Jewish king ruling over Eretz Yisrael and expanding beyond the previously held boundaries? What if it was only part of Egypt? Would it only be permissible to live in the portion under his jurisdiction? I'm assuming the answer is yes, that it's a Din in the Malchuth's boundaries, not a Din in the physical land that makes up historical Mitzrayim (I'm assuming that the land hasn't changed boundaries much over the millennia, though I don't know that to be a fact). –  Seth J Nov 3 '11 at 15:14

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