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אָנֹכִי יְ־הֹוָ־ה אֱלֹהֶיךָ אֲשֶׁר הוֹצֵאתִיךָ מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם מִבֵּית עֲבָדִים Why does it say both מִצְרַיִם then בֵּית עֲבָדִים seems to be the same thing to me?

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This question is asked by the Ohr HaChayim HaKodosh, and he answers that it is to show the difficulty of the enslavement. They were both physically and spiritually enslaved and Hashem took the Jews out from both.

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Ok, why does this language indicate that and how is it that physically and spiritually are implied in אֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם or בֵּית עֲבָדִים – SimchasTorah Jan 17 '11 at 0:10
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If it said only "מִבֵּית עֲבָדִים" it would not be saying which land it is. If it just said "מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם", how would I know that Mitzrayim is identified as the archetypal and quintessential "House of Slavery"?

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so say it the other way around say Mitzrayim and the Torah already described our slavery there – SimchasTorah Jan 16 '11 at 23:52
Our slavery there does not tell us that "Mitzrayim is identified as the archetypal and quintessential 'House of Slavery'" of the entire world and its history. – Yahu Jan 17 '11 at 0:29
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