Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

אָנֹכִי יְ־הֹוָ־ה אֱלֹהֶיךָ אֲשֶׁר הוֹצֵאתִיךָ מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם מִבֵּית עֲבָדִים Why does it say both מִצְרַיִם then בֵּית עֲבָדִים seems to be the same thing to me?

share|improve this question
up vote 2 down vote accepted

This question is asked by the Ohr HaChayim HaKodosh, and he answers that it is to show the difficulty of the enslavement. They were both physically and spiritually enslaved and Hashem took the Jews out from both.

share|improve this answer
Ok, why does this language indicate that and how is it that physically and spiritually are implied in אֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם or בֵּית עֲבָדִים – SimchasTorah Jan 17 '11 at 0:10

If it said only "מִבֵּית עֲבָדִים" it would not be saying which land it is. If it just said "מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם", how would I know that Mitzrayim is identified as the archetypal and quintessential "House of Slavery"?

share|improve this answer
so say it the other way around say Mitzrayim and the Torah already described our slavery there – SimchasTorah Jan 16 '11 at 23:52
Our slavery there does not tell us that "Mitzrayim is identified as the archetypal and quintessential 'House of Slavery'" of the entire world and its history. – Yahu Jan 17 '11 at 0:29

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.