אָנֹכִי יְ־הֹוָ־ה אֱלֹהֶיךָ אֲשֶׁר הוֹצֵאתִיךָ מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם מִבֵּית עֲבָדִים Why does it say both מִצְרַיִם then בֵּית עֲבָדִים seems to be the same thing to me?
- Anybody can ask a question
- Anybody can answer
- The best answers are voted up and rise to the top
This question is asked by the Ohr HaChayim HaKodosh, and he answers that it is to show the difficulty of the enslavement. They were both physically and spiritually enslaved and Hashem took the Jews out from both.
If it said only "מִבֵּית עֲבָדִים" it would not be saying which land it is. If it just said "מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם", how would I know that Mitzrayim is identified as the archetypal and quintessential "House of Slavery"?