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כֹּה תֹאמַר לְבֵית יַעֲקֹב וְתַגֵּיד לִבְנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל Rashi say that בֵית יַעֲקֹב refers to the women He has an answer to this question but I know there are other good ones Why the Women first?

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Please explain the question. The quote you brought makes no reference to women. –  WAF Jan 16 '11 at 23:32
    
It would probably be easier to explain why the two whole clauses are parallel than to single out that implied pair. This is how Rash"i explains the פסוק, pointing out that it is impossible to ignore the parallel between the two clauses. –  WAF Jan 16 '11 at 23:51
    
Yeah but thats not the question –  SimchasTorah Jan 17 '11 at 0:17
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2 Answers

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The Bais HaLevi answers based on the Gemara in Gitin 55: that a lady may not really be agreeable to a Kinyan yet do it in order to please her husband, therefore by Kinyonim it is proper to first have the lady agree and then the husband. The same thing happened by Matan Torah, Hashem had the ladies accept first.

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In Medrash Shemos Rabbah it says that since when the world was created Hashem told Adam not to eat from the Eitz HaDaas and Chava convinced Adam to eat from it, therfore over here Hashem told the women first in order that they should not convince their husbands otherwise.

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