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Why does the Posuk from one posuk to the Next change the word for eating they could have both said יֵאָכֵל?

Also why in one Posuk is it spelled מַצֹּת and the next posuk מַצּוֹת?

Posuk Vov:

שִׁבְעַת יָמִים תֹּאכַל מַצֹּת וּבַיּוֹם הַשְּׁבִיעִי חַג לַי־הֹוָ־ה

Posuk Zayin:

מַצּוֹת יֵאָכֵל אֵת שִׁבְעַת הַיָּמִים וְלֹא יֵרָאֶה לְךָ חָמֵץ וְלֹא יֵרָאֶה לְךָ שְׂאֹר בְּכָל גְּבֻלֶךָ

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up vote 4 down vote accepted

R' Shneur Zalman of Liadi (Likkutei Torah, Pekudei 5b) explains homiletically that יֵאָכֵל is transitive: "matzos shall feed the seven days" - the latter representing the seven aspects that make up a person's emotional self. The Torah is saying, then, that these need to be suffused with the nullification (bittul) to G-d that the matzah represents.

He also refers there to another discourse of his (ibid., Tzav 13a ff), in which the two spellings of מצ(ו)ת are analyzed. The defective spelling, he says, refers to the matzah eaten on the night of Pesach in Egypt, a purely human effort; the vav in the full spelling symbolizes the "drawing down" (the usual significance of this in Kabbalistic thought) of the revelation of G-dliness that accompanied the Exodus, which indeed wouldn't allow for the dough to rise.

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The Gra gives an Interesting answer: First posuk the Torah is talking about your personal mitzvah to eat Matzah therefore it is a command תֹּאכַל מַצֹּת and the word Matzah is spelled without a Vov.The second Posuk says יֵאָכֵל- "it should be eaten"(by others) meaning its talking about the Mitzvah of KIMCHA DPISCHA (Giving the Poor Wheat) and for this Mitzvah do it fully so it is spelled with a Vov.

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