I have read that Aishdas (Deut. 33:2) means "fiery law" or something of the sort. However, doesn't the word das with the meaning of law/religion come from Persian (i.e. did not have the meaning of law in Biblical times)? Can someone help me out here?
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Based on the k'siv, in which "אשדת" is only one word, I have heard it being related to the independent word אשדת, meaning waterfall, as in "תחת אשדת הפסגה". (D'varim 4:49) |
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I've also seen a suggestion (don't recall the source) that דת here is short for דאת (or דאתה), "flew." So the meaning of the verse would be "from His right hand, fire flew to them." In defense of the traditional explanation, דת as "law" may be a native Hebrew word that is otherwise unattested, rather than a loanword from Persian. |
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Conceivably, דת is simply a semitic root that happens to only come up once in the earlier Hebrew of the Chumash, but was used more in Persian. It appears in Aramaic and Syriac as דתא (which is also found in the book of Ezra). But yes, the kesiv is "waterfall". A nice metaphor for Torah -- fiery passion and rite fused into a whole that is neither, from which flows life. |
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The Persian language did not exist at the time of Torah? Not even a prototype? I'm not sure I really understand the difficulty. The Torah has words that were not (originally) Hebrew. A couple of examples off the top - Totofos (tefilin) and Moshe. Is there anywhere stated that all the words in the Torah had to be of Hebrew origin? |
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According to Rash"i (on B'reshis 37:17), Ya'akov's other ten sons used the word דת on their way to plot against Yosef. |
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