Devarim 1:1 uses the phrase "Mol Suf". The word is pronounced "Mol" vs. "Mul". I assume that the literal definition of the word is "against" or "near".
In other locations in the Torah, the word is pronounced "Mul". 3 such places, offhand:
- Bamidbar 22:5 last word (granted that it is possessive, but has the same "root" meaning.)
- Devarim 2:19
- Devarim 11:30
Why is this pronounced "Mol", in Devarim 1:1? Does this have a different definition than "Mul", in this place?
Note: I know that there are numerous Midrashic translations of the names of the places mentioned in this verse. Your answer should not reference these unless it specifically explains the reason for the difference in the pronunciation of "mol".