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I'm not Jewish, but I have a question I am curious about.

I recently posted this on the Christianity stack exchange website, but did not get many good answers, since most Christians generally don't follow Mosaic Law. As far as I know, Jewish people do (depending on how orthodox they are, right?).

I am a Russian Orthodox Christian, and I know other Russian Orthodox Christians who consider a woman's menses to be impure. Here is a good explanation of this.

So, I know we plan our weddings around the bride's menstruation cycle, because she should be completely pure at that time.

Have any of you ever heard of this, or do it yourself? How does this change the marriage ceremonies?

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The short answer is that yes, many observant Jews do this. Is that sufficient to answer your question? –  Charles Koppelman Jul 3 at 17:13
    
Well in the link Danno posted, the author explains how the marriage ceremony changes depending on the woman. However, for me, if that happens to be the case on my wedding day, the show does NOT go on. Is that the case for some observant Jews as well? –  Bobo Jul 3 at 17:17
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@Bobo If you ask something more than a yes/no question, you will likely get an answer that more directly answers your concerns. Since we're not sure what you want to know, you will likely get answers that leave something useful out. –  Charles Koppelman Jul 3 at 17:20
    
I don't really get the question. –  Double AA Jul 3 at 17:41

2 Answers 2

up vote 4 down vote accepted

Yes, Orthodox Jewish practice involves a married couple separating for approximately 12 days a month during months that the wife is having her normal menstrual cycle, ending in the wife visiting the Mikvah to end the status requiring the separation.

Before the wedding, similar preparations are made. If for some reason (and it happens) that doesn't work out and the woman ends up Niddah, then generally speaking most will hold that the wedding continues, but the bride and groom are not allowed to be alone together (or touch, etc.) until she is able to go the Mikvah (again, about 12 days later). There is a minority opinion that the whole marriage didn't happen in that state, but I'm not aware of anyone who would (in these times) say "cancel the wedding" in such a situation, instead of relying on the other opinions.

There are many questions under the tag on this site discussing various aspects of how that works for Jews.

There are many sites which are dedicated to this topic. Mikvah.org is one of them.

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This answers my question perfectly (my super vague question, I know). I really am just curious and this doesn't seem to be talked about much. Knowing the term niddah will help me research more myself. Thank you! –  Bobo Jul 3 at 19:01

Nowadays, people are usually careful that the woman starts taking hormone regulation pills (birth control pills) before the wedding in order to make sure that she will not be menstrually impure at the time of the wedding. She then stops taking the pills after she and her husband are together for the first time.

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I've heard of this among people in my church as well. Interesting stuff. :) –  Bobo Jul 3 at 19:02

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