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I often hear among younger, apparently fromm men the aphorism "[gentile women]1 are for [sexual] practice". This has always struck me as bizarre, due to the importance of the reproductive act for its explicit purpose. Does anyone actually weigh in as to whether this is as problematic as it seems?

1 The actual quote I've heard uses a derogatory term here.

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closed as primarily opinion-based by Double AA Jun 8 at 3:02

Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

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Its a stupid saying ,which is completely assur as you are well aware –  sam Jun 8 at 1:45
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Not all who appear/claim to be frum (or "fromm") actually are..... –  Shokhet Jun 8 at 2:38
    
@sam, I am well aware of this, in fact, I once had a wonderful hashkafic debate where I disproved this expression, however, I wondered what the actual halachot on the matter were. –  Noach mi Frankfurt Jun 8 at 3:06
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Is your question "Is sex with a gentile prohibited?" or "How prohibited is sex with a gentile?" or something else? –  Double AA Jun 8 at 4:48
    
Effectively, I'm asking about the halachic/hashkafic stance regarding both whether sex with non-Jews is prohibited and the laissez-faire attitude associated with this. –  Noach mi Frankfurt Jun 8 at 14:33

1 Answer 1

The Rambam in Hilchos Issurei Biah 12:6 holds there is an issue kares,see the chapter in detail. See also the Shulchan Aruch Even Haezer 16 with the meforshim who hold its not only a Rabbinic prohibition but rather a Torah prohibition.

The saying is just an immature attitude of relationships on a whole and is entirely prohibited.

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