Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It's 100% free, no registration required.

When one is saying a b'racha and realizes only after saying God's name that the b'racha is no longer valid, he can avoid the problem of uttering God's name in vain by tacking on the words "למדני חקיך", thus transforming an aborted b'racha into a fully-formed pasuk.

If one hears another person use this fallback is it appropriate to respond with "אמן" as one would to a b'racha, or is the person simply quoting a pasuk, therefore not warranting such a response (like in the case of ברכת כהנים)?

share|improve this question
    
Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/3912/5 –  Seth J Apr 4 '12 at 15:23
add comment

4 Answers 4

up vote 3 down vote accepted

Well he only said a Posuk so why would you answer Amein? In regard to the issue raised as to this Pasuk being part of the Hadran at the end of a Mesechta and is followed by Amein If it was followed by the Kahal saying Amein then you would have a point. However it is part of the Nusach which the person who says the Hadran says, not the people hearing it responding with an Amein. It is similar to when we Daven Shacharis and say Boruch Hashem L'Olam and finish it with Amen V'amen. No one responds to it saying Amein. Here to you would not say Amein after the person finishes saying the Pasuk.

share|improve this answer
    
Not a good proof from Shacharit because there "Amen veAmen" is part of the original pasuk. See Psalms 72:19 and Psalms 89:53. –  Double AA Sep 13 '12 at 5:25
add comment

By the hadran said after a siyum this Posuk is followed by Amen (more than one ...)

share|improve this answer
    
Anon_2Kislev71, Welcome to mi.yodeya, and thanks very much for bringing this data to the table! Please change your username to a more distinctive pseudonym than the generic "Anon." I've taken the liberty of adding today's date to your name for the time being. Also, we'd love to have you as a fully-registered member, which you can accomplish by clicking "register," above. –  Isaac Moses Nov 9 '10 at 18:12
1  
If it was followed by the Kahal saying Amein then you would have a point. However it is part of the Nusach which the person who says the Hadran says, not the people hearing it responding with an Amein. It is similar to when we Daven Shacharis and say Boruch Hashem L'Olam and finish it with Amen V'amen. No one responds to it saying Amein. Here to you would not say Amein after the person finishes saying the Pasuk. –  Gershon Gold Nov 9 '10 at 19:52
add comment

like birkat cohanim, maybe you should say "ken yehi ratzon"

share|improve this answer
1  
Do you say Kein Yehi Ratzon when someone says Ashrei? You only say it by Birchas Kohanim as you are affirming the Bracha. When there is no affirmation there is no Amein or Kein Yehi Ratzon. –  Gershon Gold Nov 9 '10 at 17:51
add comment

Sometimes in Tehillim (eg., תהלים פ"ט:נ"ג), you have the expression Amein v'Amein. This is also Tehillim, so why not?

share|improve this answer
    
Can you cite at least one instance in Tehillim where that phrase appears? –  Double AA Apr 4 '12 at 13:39
    
@DoubleAA Done. –  Seth J Apr 4 '12 at 14:57
    
Adam, although I added the reference for you, I'm not sure I agree with you. In the case(s) you're referring to, it's part of the codified text of TaNa"Ch. In the case in the question, it would be the listener's response. –  Seth J Apr 4 '12 at 15:10
    
@SethJ Thank you –  Double AA Apr 4 '12 at 15:17
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.