In a few places, Rash"i quotes a midrash, usually associated with how Datan and Aviram addressed Moshe. They referred to him as "ben Amram' (Son of Amram). Rash"i implies that this term was considered derrogatory or disrespectful. I would think that since Amram had a pretty high and respected status in the community, and he was the proud father of 3 notable children that it would be honorable to be known as the son of Amram. Is Rash"i implying something else?
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This is consistent with Rashi's explanation of Taanit 3a, wherein Rabbi Joshua Son of Bteira is at times simply cited as 'son of Bteira'. The Talmud states that they would call him by his name after he was ordained as a rabbi, and by the name of his father before his ordination.
Rashi explains in s.v. מקמי דליסמכוהו that he was not a man of stature before his ordination, so they called him by his father's name. Only after he became a rabbi was he regarded by his own name as well, having gained renown by his own right.
Datan and Abiram referred to Moses as 'son of Amram' to imply that he had no acclaim of his own, and was thus only known by way of his eminent father. This was obviously a disrespectful, given Moses' position as our leader from the Exodus onward.