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A woman marries a divorced man (well...until today.) The man wants to make a brit for his son (from his previous wife) on the same day as the brit. To save money, he wants to make a combination se'udah for both events.

Any halachic problems with doing this, or does each occasion require its own se'udah? If they can do one, what would be the order of the brachot at the end - Brit benching or sheva brachot first?

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There are multiple Halachic problems with such a wedding. A more realistic hypothetical would be a man marrying a second wife on the day of his son-from-another-wife's bris. Is there a reason you specifically wanted the mother to be making the Seuda? Also, is the triple bris really part of the question? Do you expect a different answer if it was one or two? – Yishai May 22 '14 at 17:01
As I recall the Rambam, they could not have gotten married before the end of the pregnancy or even before the baby is weaned. IIRC they have to wait three months to ensure she is not pregnant and then wait until the baby has been weaned (2 years). I do not have it with me so cannot give the quote. – sabbahillel May 22 '14 at 17:02
Where is the proof a woman can accept a get when she is pregnant. – preferred May 22 '14 at 19:39
@preferred A woman does not "accept" a get, the man gives it to her. As seen in the Rambam on the halachos of gittin, there is no restriction (other than the one in the torah for motzi shem ra) on when the man can hand her the get. It does not matter if she is pregnant or not. In any case, the law is the same if he dies or divorces her. – sabbahillel May 22 '14 at 19:46
@sabbahillel Today a woman has to 'accept' a get. I would like to know the proof of 'receiving' when she is pregnant. I seem to remember it being discussed somewhere. How does dying come into it. – preferred May 22 '14 at 19:50

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